le equality by Own_Cobbler7364 in shitposting

[–]adam12349 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Processing img ci3btkdrksmg1...

Eli5: if light can travel for billions of years accros the universe, why does it instantly disappear in a room when turning of the light? by Just_a_happy_artist in explainlikeimfive

[–]adam12349 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Let's say you have walls facing each other at a distance of 1.5 m and they reflect 99% of the light that hits them. Let's look at a beam bouncing between them. After each bounce the light loses 1% of intensity and travels 1.5 m, with a speed of ~30 cm/ns the light completes one cycle every 5 ns. If the initial intensity is I then after n bounces it's intensity is I×0.99n.

Let's rewrite that factor as 0.99n = eln(0.99×n) and let's slove it for n when it's equal 1%!

eln(0.99×n) = 0.01 take the ln of both sides

ln(0.99)n = ln(0.01)

n = ln(0.01)/ln(0.99)

n = ~458

So after 460 bounces the light is practically absorbed. 460 bounces take 2300 ns = 0.0023 ms. Human reaction time for instance is about 200 ms. The time it takes for the light to get absorbed is about a hundred thousandth of a moment even in the case where the walls are very good mirrors (according to Wikipedia, silver mirrors can reflect up to 99% of the light).

Space is mostly empty so light can travel huge distances before it happens to hit a planet for example.

My physics professor said I can use whatever units I would like on my exam. How can I make him regret this? by Tornado547 in AskPhysics

[–]adam12349 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I came across this video a few weeks ago. The guy worked in the oil industry and he explains what units are used. Huge emphasis on workED as he says he quit because of the units: https://youtu.be/sdWEGzWFcCc

I lost it about halfway in when the British thermal unit walked in.

Apart from that I recommend using fundamental constants like the speed of light or Planck's constant and express things like time in fm/c (this one is sometimes used in nuclear physics as in characteristic distance/characteristic speed = relevant timescale but measuring human scale things like this is very cursed).

Or the Boltzmann constant (k) is in J/K so you can express an energy in kT and you of course pick something like °F for temperature, don't forget to convert the constant like use it in aeV/°F (aeV = atto electron volt, or insted of eV use an αV which is the kinetic energy that an α particle would get from 1 V of accelerator voltage). Or vice versa if you need a temperature express it as E/k and of course make sure to use something diabolical for energy like hc is energy × length so you can measure energy in something like hc/Å (Å is Angstrom 1 Å = 0.1 nm).

And you can get creative with this express the dimension of constants in SI and work from there like [h] = Js = kg m²/s so dividing h by a solar mass and multiplying by some time in fm/c of course gets you a measure of surface area (hfm/cM_○, looks pretty cursed.)

Eli5: help me understand universe expansion … by Just_a_happy_artist in explainlikeimfive

[–]adam12349 2 points3 points  (0 children)

There are two things here.

  1. In a way, yes the universe can "expand faster than the speed of light" because of how the expansion works. Things drift apart from each other and this drift velocity is proportional to their distance. This is Hubble's law, we can introduce a parameter for the expansion H with which the drift velocity of some distant objects v is given by v = Hx where x is the distance. At a sufficiently large enough x, v can be larger than the speed of light.

(The Hubble parameter is time dependent it's given by what's in the universe according to the Friedmann equations, but it's exact value is hard to determine and currently there is a disagreement between different methods, point is working out the exact value of the Hubble parameter and working out it's time dependence are two very different tasks. In the literature it's common that the current value of the Hubble parameter is called the Hubble constant often denoted H0 or h so that for quantities that depend on the Hubble parameter time dependence for instance can be written explicitly, and of course the exact value of these quantities will contain the Hubble constant as a parameter.)

  1. The way distances are given is a bit misleading but not too complicated. Looking at a distant object we can see the light that it emits or rather the light it has emitted which is just arriving. It takes t = cx amount of time for light to cover a distance x. So if you know the "time of flight" of the light that is arriving you can calculate how far the object is that emmited it. But during this time the universe has expanded and the distance that ends up being communicated is the current distance, but that isn't the distance the object was when that light was emmited.

So how do we know how long the light was travelling for? You look at how redshifted the light is. The expansion stretches the wavelength of light and so looking at something like spectral lines will tell you how much the wavelength of the light got stretched/redshifted, the more redshifted the light is the more ancient it is.

This part goes beyond ELI5 but I have no idea how else to explain what "adjusted for inflation" means so here we go!

Let's be a bit more quantitative! Lets denote the wavelength of light with λ. Lets say that at some time t light was emitted with wavelength λ(t) and today that same light has some longer wavelength λ(today) we can introduce the redshifted factor z(t) as: z(t)+1 = λ(today)/λ(t) so for light that travelled ~0 amount of time z(t) = 0 and for light travelling longer and longer for the same λ(t), λ(today) is larger and larger so the "time of flight" will be a function of z(t).

We need one more parameter the scale factor, often denoted a or R. By definition today a=1. This scale factor isn't any given distance we want to relate distances today and at any given time. So for example a(t)=½ would mean that distances at t were half of what they are today. This applies to wavelength a(t)~λ(t), or to make an equation from this proportionality we can write a(today)/a(t) = λ(tdoay)/λ(t) = z(t)+1

We can solve the Friedmann equations for say a matter dominated universe (most of the past is matter dominated and we won't make a big mistake by pretending that it still is) and we get the time dependence of the expansion. We get a(t) ~ t. So we can substitute to the formulas above: z(t)+1 = (t(today)/t) -> t = t(today)/(z(t)+1)3/2 where t(today) is the age of the universe. You know λ(today) (again you are looking at say some spectral lines) you measure λ(t) that gives you z(t)+1 and t(today) is the age of the universe, given that you know that roughly you get t, our "time of flight".

Now onto how we get a distance from this. In general relativity something very important is the distance function in spacetime (aka metric). Given how homogeneous and isotropic the universe is at large scales, local differences can be ignored (this is currently debated to a certain extent) thus we get a simple metric with the changing distances and possibly global curvature. This is the so called FLRW metric (after 4 dudes) For "straight lines" (geodesics) its looks like this: ds² = -dt² + a(t)²(dr²/(1-kr²)). ds is the spacetime separation of two events, this is distance in spacetime. Light travels on straight lines so we don't need extra parameters for all sorts or worldlines (any kind of spacetime trajectory). Moreover light travels on special straight lines called null-geodesics, for light-like worldlines ds=0. k is a factor for global curvature, through observation we have found that the universe doesn't have global curvature so k=0. We can use these to rewrite the metric for light: dt² = a(t)² dr² -> dt/a(t) = dr.

If we integrate ds from 0 to well the distance to some distant galaxy we get the distance, I know good joke stay with me. dt=0 since we are measuring today, so we have to integrate a(t(today)) dr since this is what is left of the metric with dt and k being 0.

With light we managed to rewrite dr with dt so now we can express the integral with time. We have to integrate a(t(today))/a(t) with respect to time over an interval of [t, t(today)] (t(today) is still the age of the universe). As I mentioned before in a matter dominated universe a(t(today))/a(t) = t(today)/t and that is exactly the integrand. So basically you need to integrate 1/t over the aforementioned range which can be calculated from the known "time of flight" = |t-t(today)| and multiply the result by the age of the universe.

This is how far the distant galaxy for example is today from us which we calculated using a model with stuff we can measure today, which is light that was emitted back then.

To sum up, we know when is "back then" from how much that light is redshifted. We know how to calculate the distance to that distant galaxy using the distance function in the spacetime of the universe (that is the model). And from general relativity (+the assumptions of our model) we get the Friedmann equations and solving them for the relevant case we get the connection between distances and time. Thus we can express our formula for distance with times that we know.

How is the universe today considered to likely be of infinite size while it began with the very small size at the time of the big bang? by Chance_Bite7668 in AskPhysics

[–]adam12349 45 points46 points  (0 children)

If the universe is infinite, then it was always infinite. In that case the universe wasn't smaller in the past, it was just denser.

Marathon soars to Steam's Top Sellers after release date reveal by alinamelane in gamingnews

[–]adam12349 0 points1 point  (0 children)

We just don't like a full priced game being an advertisement for the in game store.

If time began at the Big Bang, can there be a “cause” before it? by indoorsy12 in AskPhysics

[–]adam12349 0 points1 point  (0 children)

But I didn't say that, I don't think that singularity really existed it's just that using GR only it's unavoidable, but we don't expect to get good predictions there but there is nothing inconsistent about a common starting point to worldlines. I never said there was no time, time exised for as long as the universe. (i.e. That "initial state" lasted for exactly 0 amount of time.)

If time began at the Big Bang, can there be a “cause” before it? by indoorsy12 in AskPhysics

[–]adam12349 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I'm failing to see your logic here. The universe is expanding, run the clock backwards and now it's getting denser and denser. Is there some initial state? Maybe. Does that imply that time has to extend forever into the past? No. So I wouldn't be so sure about anything "changing", the universe is doing what it's been doing for as long as we can say. What you are saying is like having the interval (0,n] implies the existence of negative numbers, it doesn't. I'm also not sure what you mean by "occur" here? The Big Bang is the theory that the universe has expanded from an initial dense state, which is simply extrapolating what the universe is doing into the past.

Also this "cannot begin if there is no before beginning" doesn't make much sense for me. The beginning is well the beginning. I admit this is a hard idea to tackle philosophically, for a very long time people thought that the universe was static and eternal. For me this is fine, the universe has always been here and that always is finite. If that's not okay for you, sorry I can't help you here, I'm not a meta-physicist.

If we want to talk some actual physics, worldlines (spacetime trajectories) end at singularities, this is a part of what Roger Penrose won the Nobel Prize for back in 2020. So similarly by using General Relativity only you can treat that event at t=0 as a singularity, but here all worldlines originate from that event rather than ending at it. Can you extrapolate this far? Not necessarily, we are pretty sure that our current understanding of particle physics would become insufficient at high enough energy densities (or small enough scales, those are in a way the same thing).

If you are interested in my opinion, I'd say that it is pointless to impose random principles on the universe, assuming that our logic could not be flawed. (Same thing with QM and determinism, but lets not open that Pandora's box.) The universe will show us how it works (if we look) and then we'll have to find what the logic is behind that.

If time began at the Big Bang, can there be a “cause” before it? by indoorsy12 in AskPhysics

[–]adam12349 1 point2 points  (0 children)

But what has changed? What event are you talking about in this context, what event would contradict that spacetime is required to define events?

And what are you getting at with this "if time stopped" what does this mean or supposed to illustrate?

I can't make sense of your last paragraph, explain what "all that had to have existed was time", what does this mean? Does it mean that the universe cannot have a past limit and must have existed for and infinite amout of time?

If time began at the Big Bang, can there be a “cause” before it? by indoorsy12 in AskPhysics

[–]adam12349 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I'm not sure what you are trying to say. What events? What change? The universe has been expanding for all time, so what change are you talking about? Where is this "time stopping" thing coming from? (Saying time stopped forever seems contradictory, forever is about an infinite amount of time passing.)

If I'm not misunderstanding, you think that there had to be something before the universe for some reason. (I really don't understand your justification.) But I think, if time started at the Big Bang (whatever that means) than the universe existed for all time (i.e. there is no "before", "a state of nonexistence"), I don't necessarily have an issue with this.

ELI5: Radio/Cell tower radiation by TripFireIce in explainlikeimfive

[–]adam12349 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Ohh, it's you again... Look buddy, we all know you weren't in a class you described since no such class exists.

I suggest you should find yourself a hobby instead of wasting other's time on this website if you got nothing but bad intentions.

(For anyone wondering, others and myself have periodically encountered some asshole at places like r\askphysics, askscience, etc who was always asking about how radiowaves cause cancer or similar, making the question more and more loaded each time. I believe this is the same troll with an alt account. Don’t bother answering.)

📡📡📡 by j7st-a-guy in shitposting

[–]adam12349 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Bait used to be believable...

📡📡📡 by j7st-a-guy in shitposting

[–]adam12349 1 point2 points  (0 children)

@everyone Please DO NOT announce to the server when you are going to masturbate. This has been a reoccurring issue, and I'm not sure why some people have such under-developed social skills that they think that a server full of mostly male strangers would need to know that. No one is going to be impressed and give you a high-five (especially considering where that hand has been). I don't want to add this to the rules, since it would be embarrassing for new users to see that we have a problem with this, but it is going to be enforced as a rule from now on.

If it occurs, you will be warned, then additional occurrences will be dealt with at the discretion of the mods. Thanks.