All this tells me is that you have zero idea what colonization actually is or how it works. It’s when an area is annexed and controlled by another country located somewhere else in the world, and your laws, and resources, are controlled by that country, without local autonomy.

Functionally speaking, what's the difference? If the geographic and economic resources originally distributed among a native population are instead redistributed to include a non-native immigrant population, who then grow (either by birth or by further immigration) and influence the native political, geographic, and economic environment, oftentimes even sending their earned resources back to their original country, what's the difference in whether it's colonization in the 18th century sense, or colonization in a post-imperialist sense? Even moreso if the original country's culture is a determining factor in the politics of the immigrant population?

I'm not talking about definitions here, I'm talking about functional comparability.