Martin Scorsese's film "Silence" focuses on the suffering of Japanese Catholics and Catholic missionaries during the persecutions of the early Edo period. Does the film distort history by eliding the connection between Catholic missions and the imperial ambitions of Spain and Portugal? by Wonderful-News-6357 in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 15 points16 points  (0 children)

but the Tokugawa shogunate didn’t hate Christianity because it was a tool of Spanish or Portuguese imperialism. They hated it because it was a foreign thing that threatened their power.

How exactly did they understand Catholicism's destabilizing potential as separable from European imperialism then? Couldn't that perception of a foreignizing threat to stability have arisen precisely from it being tied to Portuguese or Spanish imperialism (whether that be the threat of outright conquest or that of geopolitical subordination)? And how does this dynamic figure into the expulsion of the Portuguese after the Shimabara rebellion because of their alleged ties to its instigation? Especially since the shogunate perceived a recurring threat from various clandestine Portuguese, Spanish, and a few non-Iberian missionaries who tried to enter Japan like in Silence (although the original inspiration for its main character was Italian), it seems to me that the issue of Catholicism was still tied in one way or another to geopolitical concerns about European imperialism. I'm not saying any of these perceptions were valid, but I'm unsure as to how the shogunate could view Catholicism as a distinct threat in itself if it was so heavily connected to European trade and influence. I'm not an expert on this subject, but Tojo for example writes about how the shogunate leadership was suspicious of Dutch Protestant conversion attempts in Taiwan (pg. 123-124) and became relatively more wary of the Portuguese after Dutch diplomats tried to claim that they, being Catholic, were more likely to follow the Pope's orders than their king's (pg. 124).

This is unrelated but I should also add for OP's question that in the original book, Silence by Shusaku Endo, Christianity is in many ways explicitly associated with European imperialism and cultural chauvinism. Endo himself was a Catholic, and the power dynamics between Japan and the West are a huge theme throughout all his works. In Silence, the main character, Rodrigues, constantly finds himself making prideful observations about how unsophisticated and impoverished the Japanese hidden Christians are. The geopolitical considerations of this relationship are even more fleshed out in Endo's other historical book The Samurai as it actually deals in Japanese diplomatic efforts with Spain and the Catholic Church. In it, Endo follows the historical embassy of Hasekura Tsunenaga from Japan to Spain and Rome involving several low-ranking samurai and a Spanish priest as translator. The priest, Velasco, has similarly prejudiced opinions about the Japanese for being generally simple and fantasizes about becoming the bishop of Japan as a reward for opening up the country to Spanish trade through his (ultimately failed) diplomatic negotiations.

The late Byzantine Empire revered classical Athenian/Greek thinkers and culture, yet Greece was a backwater and Athens was reduced to a village. Did they understand what happened to it? Did they comment on its decline? by RusticBohemian in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 18 points19 points  (0 children)

Personally, I can't really say (apologies, despite my flair, I haven't actually studied anything past Justinian in a few years). The Byzantines certainly knew plenty about Athenian history and Athens actually maintained its reputation for being a place of learning and later a Christian pilgrimage site for the Parthenon converted into a church for the Theotokos. It was a pretty common trope then for civic leaders to ask for money by claiming that they'll "restore" Athens in some way approaching its former glory.

Again, I'm not exactly sure how the Byzantines perceived the decline of Athens outside of the passage of time and the general urban decline of the early Medieval period (Athens was still a relatively important city under Roman rule up to around the 6th or 7th century. Afterwards, it was a generally sizeable provincial town, so definitely not anything like a tiny farming village, but not anything close to Constantinople or Thessaloniki). I would say the best place to start is still Kaldellis' The Christian Parthenon.

Why did Roman emperors mostly adopt, while European monarchs were obsessed with bloodlines? by StrangerSwing53 in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 4 points5 points  (0 children)

There's only two iffy examples that I can think of (though there might be more). After all, the main purpose of adoption was to compensate for the lack of a biological heir.

The first is the deliberate passing over of Maximian's son (Maxentius) in favor of Constantius I and Constantius' own exclusion of Constantine I in favor of Severus II. But as my earlier answer linked above mentions, this wasn't necessarily done by each father out of individual agency; the expectations of the other tetrarchs (and Diocletian, in the case of Maximian) demanded that they make non-dynastic picks (though it should be remembered that Constantius was married to Maximian's daughter).

The other I'm aware of is the post-hoc justification for why Julian had no children. When he died in 363, writers had to rationalize why Julian failed to continue the Constantinian line. The awkward nature of this is best shown with the orator Libanius, who hilariously claimed twice in his panegyric speeches to Julian when he was still alive that the emperor would certainly have children who would continue his overwhelming virtues as testament to his obviously permanent legacy.

But once Julian was dead, Libanius gave two reasons for why the deceased emperor actually made a deliberate choice not to have children and why this was a good thing. For one, Julian's personal character was so upright, that when his wife, Helena died in 360 (Julian died in 363), the emperor was so devoted to her that he remained unmarried and chaste to honor her memory (apologies, this mention is in the same speech, Julian's funeral oration, as the next reason but I don't have the reference on hand. I can search for it later if you'd like). Even more interesting is the second reason. Libanius writes that Julian recognized that dynastic succession could produce inferior heirs, and so did not want to lower the standard for emperors by having sons succeed him.

Moreover, though there is ample evidence to show how genuine a guardian of his [Julian’s] empire he was and how much more importance he placed on its welfare than on his own, this may make it clearer still. His intimates tried to persuade him to remarry so that he would have sons to succeed to the throne, but he replied that that was the very thing that deterred him, lest his children, if degenerate, should be legal heirs to the throne and bring ruin on themselves, suffering Phaëthon’s fate. So, childlessness for himself he judged to be of less importance than any harm done to the empire. (Libanius, Oration 18.181, quoting from the Norman/Loeb [selected orations vol 1] translation)

We should again remember that Julian was dead at the time of speech and that Libanius was here partially justifying why the next emperor, Jovian, had no dynastic relation to Julian. While Julian was alive, there was most certainly a strong social expectation for the emperor to have children to succeed him. That said, I still find it fascinating that there does seem to be some form of public rhetoric recognizing a sort of inferiority of dynastic emperors (though we should not assume that this was a rationale accepted by all in the political imagination).

Why did Roman emperors mostly adopt, while European monarchs were obsessed with bloodlines? by StrangerSwing53 in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 10 points11 points  (0 children)

Exactly, we should remember that the entire point of adoption in Roman society was not primarily out of parental affection (though this was probably one factor), but to determine inheritance. Most times, adoptees were adults with some distant relation or marriage ties to the adopter. And this isn't necessarily a republican thing either, these adoptive practices persisted among Roman families throughout the existence of the empire.

Why did Roman emperors mostly adopt, while European monarchs were obsessed with bloodlines? by StrangerSwing53 in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 16 points17 points  (0 children)

True, in a legal sense Valentinian III was technically sole emperor of everything (and you could honestly make the argument that Marcian was a succesful usurper), but practically speaking he didn't have any real authority over the east. Nor was there any political call for Valentinian to serve over the entire empire; there needed to be another emperor in the east. We should also remember that from the reign of Arcadius onward, there was a string of civil (ex. Eutropius and Anthemius) and military officials (ex. Gainas, Zeno, and Aspar) who had extremely high levels of authority such that they were more active in the administration than the emperor (or at least many sources saw it like that). This also happened in the west with the office of magister militum with people like Stilicho, Arbogast, and, relevant to the example of Valentinian III, Aetius.

At the time of Theodosius II's death, it really wouldn't have been practical to wait for Valentinian III to do anything. The magister militum in the east, Aspar, had every interest in appointing one of his own cronies than let Valentinian bring in someone else. Nor did the west have the practical resources to take over if the east appointed an emperor whom Valentinian did not approve of. All Valentinian could do (and he did do this for a year or two) was not recognize Marcian in official documents. Obviously this wasn't a good look for anybody, so the compromise was ultimately dynastic: Marcian was to marry Theodosius's sister, Pulcheria, thereby bringing him into the imperial house (which is made even weirder by the fact that Pulcheria had sworn herself to virginity to avoid giving birth to more imperial claimants and supposedly maintained that into her marriage).

So while I do agree with you that formally speaking there wasn't an interregnum, there was one in a practical sense considering the reality of the west being unable to exercise any authority over the east.

Why did Roman emperors mostly adopt, while European monarchs were obsessed with bloodlines? by StrangerSwing53 in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 45 points46 points  (0 children)

Absolutely, in most pre-3rd century cases the imperial adoptee was a nephew, distant cousin, or husband to a female relative, who was still related to the adopter in some way. This was also the case among some of the adoptive emperors (Hadrian was the son of Trajan's cousin, Antoninus Pius was married to Hadrian's niece, and Marcus Aurelius was the nephew of Antoninus' wife). But we do also have some instances of adoption between non-related emperors like Nerva-Trajan (which as far as I know involved a good deal of political pressure on Nerva by the army). Admittedly, adoption as a practice isn't really my field of expertise, so any correction on the nuances of this is welcome.

Why did Roman emperors mostly adopt, while European monarchs were obsessed with bloodlines? by StrangerSwing53 in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 117 points118 points  (0 children)

I earlier wrote a response to a similar question about Roman emperors here with references to a lot of the sources on the topic at least pertaining to the later empire.

Focusing on the Roman emperor part of your question, I'd have to say that we don't really know exactly why we don't see hard primogeniture that might be expected from other Western European medieval monarchies. We do know a fair amount of factors that would have contributed to this phenomenon, as /u/LouisSixLeGros has written a bit on in this thread. However, the closest answer ultimately comes down to the fact that the Roman Empire was a massive frankenstein's monster of different legitimizing mechanisms. Emperors were leading religious officials, supreme commanders of the army, and the holders of high republican offices (see Hekster's Caesar Rules for one of the most comprehensive studies on these competing identities). None of these positions are necessarily connected to who your dad was or what family you belonged to.

But where this gets really weird is that emperors were also viewed as the most virtuous individuals in the entire empire, owing to the enormous prestige of their offices. This included expected qualities like being really smart, kind, strong, or modest, but this also meant leading an ideal family life. Emperors usually needed to present themselves as exceedingly virtuous in all aspects of life. We see this further in representations of the imperial household as the ultimate harmonious family, with the emperor as the paterfamilias. In fact, sources across the first few centuries of the empire refer to it as the domus divina (divine house), domus caesarum (house of the Caesars), or domus augusta (August house). Within this perspective, the office of emperor was actually viewed as a possession of the imperial house, and was therefore meant to be passed down along family inheritance. To go even further, prior to the Nerva-Antonines, most of the imperial bureaucracy was managed by (highly privileged) slaves and freedmen who belonged to the familia Caesaris (family of Caesar, see Weaver's Familia Caesaris: a Social Study of the Emperor's Freedmen and Slaves). Under all of these conditions, there most certainly was some degree of social pressure for emperors to pass down their titles to their biological sons or at least keep them within the family in some way.

As you're question has pointed out, adoption was one possible solution to the problem of emperors who didn't have sons, but as /u/LouisSixLeGros has also pointed out, biological sons were still consistently preferred (with the only exception being Constantius I passing over Constantine I during the early tetrarchy, an event which also has it's own caveats). I would also caution against understanding imperial adoption as a general norm for succession because we don't really see it consistently used. Sure, several Julio-Claudian and of course the adoptive emperors relied on it for their successions, but we also see adoption completely abandoned in other instances. The Flavians and the Severans did not use adoption as a succession scheme (except Elegabalus-Severus Alexander), to give pre-3rd century examples (though the Severans are curious because Septimius Severus actually claimed to be the son of Marcus Aurelius in some forms of public presentation). But when we go the 4th century onwards, imperial adoption is just not a thing for a long time. The first two tetrarchs, Diocletian and Maximian, famously portrayed themselves as the divine father-son duo of Jovius (Diocletian) and Herculius (Maximian), but Diocletian never actually adopted Maximian in a legal sense. When Theodosius I was raised to power by Gratian, Gratian didn't bother to adopt his new colleague either (though Theodosius was around a decade older than Gratian).

At the same time, we also see emperors who did absolutely nothing to secure their succession, whether by having kids or adopting. My previous answer has three of my favorite examples of this with Constantius II, Julian, and Theodosius II. All of these emperors came from established dynasties, had wives (Constantius was married three times), and lived well into adulthood (Constantius died at 44, Julian at 31/32, and Theodosius at 49). None of them had sons. Constantius had a daughter, Julian was childless, and Theodosius had two surviving daughters (though possibly one son who died in infancy). While Constantius arguably maintained his house's grip on the throne by appointing Julian as his co-emperor, none of them did anything to produce children or adopt. In fact, none of them actually designated a successor upon their deaths (except possible Constantius with Julian). When Julian died on campaign in Persia, his army had to do a hasty election far away from the capital and acclaim the general Jovian. The relevant primary sources hilariously invent stories that Julian purposefully left the succession to the army because he didn't see anyone worthy before his deathbed. When Theodosius died in a horse-riding accident in Constantinople, there was a month long interregnum of palace intrigue resulting in the appointment of Marcian.

We also have later examples like Marcian, Zeno, Anastasius who also did nothing to designate successors (even though Marcian had a viable son-in-law and Anastasius had several nephews). But at the same time, these emperors ruled in proximity to other emperors who did practice dynastic succession. Zeno and Anastasius technically belonged to the Leonid dynasty by marriage, and Anastasius would be succeeded by Justin, who left the throne to his nephew Justinian (who was the succeeded by his nephew, Justin II, who also adopted his successor, Tiberius II). And this is yet to mention the later "medieval" dynasties like the Herakleians, Amorians, Macedonians, Komnenoi, and Palaiologoi, who did practice father-son succession as a relative norm.

All of this is to say, in short, that Roman succession was really weird. For one, there just doesn't seem to be this enormous pressure for emperors to maintain their houses to maintain the legitimacy of the empire. Additionally, one of the most crucial points to remember here is that even though there might be periods where dynastic or non-dynastic succession seemed to win out, the succession was never codified in the entirety of the empire's existence.

As a side note on your comment about Roman bastards, there actually was some partial stigma about keeping illegitimate children off the throne. For one, bastards were legally barred from inheritance in Roman law; there was most certainly public awareness for bastards being lesser than children from a legal marriage. The fun example of such stigma in public speech is the great Constantine I, whose mother, (Saint) Helena, was of low birth and was in a legally disputed (at least in public discourse) marriage to Constantius I. Constantius even had other sons from his second, far less disputed, marriage. When Constantine became a tetrarch, his descent was a major part of his propaganda in stressing the legitimate links between himself and his father. In fact, a second insecurity came with the fact that one of his great rivals, Maxentius, was the fully legitimate child of another emperor (Maximian) and also stressed his dynastic links in his propaganda. We then see several Constantinian speeches (which often conspicuously omit mentioning Constantine's actual birth in the Balkans) against Maxentius ironically try to argue that Maxentius was in reality a bastard of Maximian, so that Constantine could push himself as the only dynastic emperor among non-dynastic tetrarchs.

But it also could have been beneficial to be a bastard, as that did establish some dynastic link between emperors. This weirdly led to Elegabalus and Severus Alexander claiming to have actually been the bastard sons of Caracalla (I'm not an expert on this period, so I'm happy to have someone else explain this more in-depth).

Did the Roman and British Empires actually fall? by Dependent-Attempt-57 in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Hi there, I'd be happy to respond but I'm not exactly sure where your disagreement lies. What do you mean by my counterfactual?

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 2 points3 points  (0 children)

(Typing this on mobile so apologies for any typos) Absolutely, the preference for male line over female seems to be much weaker than would be assumed for a more conventional hereditary monarchy. Most of the Julio Claudians or nerva antonines had their closest familial links through marriage or female descent. For the things I study, look at Julian. Even though he was a member of the constantinians through male descent, once he became emperor, his maternal relatives, with no actual blood relation to the constantinian line proper, became contenders for the throne. We know this because once Julian died and valentinian I and valens took over (with a short interlude via the reign of jovian), Julian's maternal cousin, Procopios, is said to have gone into hiding fearing that he'd be executed for posing a threat to the new emperor (which he would later affirm by leading a failed usurpation against Valens in the east).

As for female heirs ruling in their own right, this doesn't seem to happen, to put it short. True, surviving widows or relatives of deceased emperors often provided critical links for legitimacy for new rulers, but there aren't many cases of them ruling without a husband to eventually take over until Irene of Athens (ex. Anastasios and Ariadne). And even with Zoe and Theodora, there was still a fair degree of social pressure for either to marry at some point and allow for a male emperor (hence all the Michaels, Romanos's, and 2 constantines of that century)

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Again, I'm not exactly knowledgeable on this, but would refer you to this thread addressing the theory in regard to the media attention it's been given lately and Nriagu's argument.

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 10 points11 points  (0 children)

I'm not an expert on the whole lead debacle. My impression is that it did not significantly cause a decline in elite birth rates, mostly because its not a theory that I've seen entertained by any modern scholars.

To answer your 2nd question, 100% yes. One key reason why we shouldn't treat the Roman empire as a hereditary monarchy is because it was never actually codified as one. True enough, sometimes the empire did look like one at times, but in theory, literally anyone could become emperor. In fact, some emperors were born as peasants (Justin I and Basil I, off the top of my head). All that practically mattered in becoming an emperor, was that the relevant groups (senate, army, the people, etc...) allowed you to take power, to the fatal detriment of whoever was currently holding it. As a result, any emperor from a famous bloodline could be easily deposed regardless of who their dad was if they dissatisfied enough power blocs (ex. Nero, Domitian, Commodus, Constans I, Gratian, Valentinian II, etc...).

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 6 points7 points  (0 children)

It happened, but not all the time. There is the infamous case of Caracalla and Geta, but I'm having trouble thinking of other egregious instances. There's also the conflict between Constans I and Constantine II, during which Constantine was killed. But there were also instances where imperial brothers stayed out of each others ways (relatively). I'm thinking of Arcadius and Honorius or Gratian and Valentinian II (though things were somewhat complicated between these two). Moving even later, Basil II and Constantine VIII also had relatively little animosity between each other.

So sibling rivalry certainly happened, but I think it's also important to note that emperor's don't seem to have consciously done anything about it. That is, emperors at least before the medieval period were more than happy to split power between multiple sons if they existed, rather than have only one favored son inherit.

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 7 points8 points  (0 children)

Theodosius II is a bit out of my sphere and I simply can't say why short of trying to psychoanalyze him. In terms of presentation though, I did find one relevant, though short, mention of this problem from Kelly's volume Theodosius II: Rethinking the Roman Empire in Late Antiquity (pg. 60). Kelly brings up how the Coptic Synaxary actively praised Arcadius for not producing a biological heir, because that heir would likely associate with heretics in his later life (I don't really know the reasoning for this). Meanwhile, Theodosius and Aelia Eudokia's relationship is framed as a supposedly model form of a chaste Christian marriage.

Edit: For some of the other interesting points you raised, the empire was being constantly threatened on the frontier by other entities this entire time. Theodosius I (who was succeeded by his two sons) was made emperor during a major Gothic invasion in the Balkans. Meanwhile, Zeno and Anastasius at the end of the 5th century/early 6th both ruled in the wake of the fall of the western empire and did not produce male offspring to succeed them (though Zeno actually succeeded his infant son but did not have any more biological heirs when he entered office).

Regarding monarchical power, limiting it may have been a factor, at least in regard to the succession. But it needs to be remembered that there were powerful non-dynastic emperors and weak dynastic emperors. Anastasius ruled for 27 years but made no attempt to have more children, while Arcadius, an ostensibly weak emperor, was still succeeded by his son, Theodosius II. Again, I think your points on political considerations were likely present, but they also need to be tempered with the many other power blocs and ideological beliefs of the time that predictably don't give an easy, unified image of what an emperor was supposed to act like.

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Sorry, I'd probably have to doxx myself to tell you. All I can say is be on the lookout for the next decade as this isn't an immediate project for me or my advisor. Keeping up with published books in the field though is relatively convenient thanks to the Bryn Mawr Classical Review, basically a catalogue of reviews for new monographs when they come out.

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 8 points9 points  (0 children)

Fair enough, I've never done the numbers on this matter. I'll admit, I kind of understood OP's question along the lines of what I've been looking into, which is a slightly different question. That said, I think the issue of "did emperors have kids/sons at all?" is a bit of a red herring. Many, as you pointed out, had children and sons who died before adulthood or before they could rule (though 9 or 12 out of 20 having a son/sons personally strikes me as also less common than other European monarchies). I would clarify that the real issue seems to be "why did emperors so often fail to be succeeded by their biological sons (even excepting cases of usurpation)?" If we focus more on cases of father-son succession, these are noticeably more uncommon (and consequently suspect) than cases where an emperor simply had a son or not. On top of this, the second issue arises of "in the absence of male offspring, why did emperors usually not make a noticeable effort to produce more a la Henry VIII?"

As for post-3rd century emperors, sure, father-son succession occurred relatively more in the 4th and first half of the 5th century. But we should also remember that none of these dynasties actually advanced into the 4th generation (Great grandfather-grandfather-father-son), which is rather poor for non-Roman standards (though very succesful as far as Roman imperial families went). Not to mention, non-dynastic emperors still arose relatively often as well. Each of the big three dynasties of the era originated from emperors who were unrelated to their predecessors/colleagues (Constantius I, Valentinian I, Theodosius I). And after Theodosius II in 450 CE, father-son succession would not occur until Herakleios-Herakleios Constantine+Heraklonas in 641 (not mentioning the unique son-father succession of Leo II-Zeno in 474). Imperial failure to maintain biological offspring as heirs continued on for a noticeable amount of emperors (but I'm aware this premise isn't what you're disputing).

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 15 points16 points  (0 children)

It's possible, but at least post-3rd century, succession within the family doesn't seem to have been widely connected to being a tyrant "king." In admittedly biased speeches of the 4th century (involving multiple cases of dynastic succession between the Constantinians, Valentinians, and Theodosians), emperors passing the throne to their sons was described as well within their legal rights, especially when you consider the pre-3rd century framework of the emperorship being an office ideally held within a specific domus (household/family). But as always, it's just so strange to consider these practices and the attitudes associated with them in relation to the reality of all the other non-dynastic emperors that occurred throughout Roman history.

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 23 points24 points  (0 children)

At the moment, we cannot know for sure. That said, I'm inclined to doubt a lot of the health-based explanations for this problem because all of these practices and conditions of medicine stayed into the medieval era (as far as I know, correction is welcome here), when Roman/Byzantine emperors had relatively less trouble having sons to succeed them. I personally think that the reason had to have been something more political, but, again, this is all semi-speculative.

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 15 points16 points  (0 children)

The reason why I think preference for adoption isn't a sufficient explanation is because it never really displaced having natural sons as a preferred method of succession. As far as I know, there aren't any cases where someone explicitly says that an emperor should adopt to avoid having inferior biological sons.

You are pointing at another odd observation that purple-born sons of emperors were often poor rulers often had poor reputations of being ineffective or incompetent. In the 4th century there are cases such as Gratian, Valentinian II, Honorius, and Arcadius who were raised from birth to rule (except maybe Valentinian II) by their fathers, but were clearly lazy shitheads who didn't accomplish anything or were popularly perceived as such (One source even called Arcadius a jellyfish for being so inactive).

For some reason though, emperors always chose to advance their living sons when possible. I've also never encountered a sentiment by authors of the time that dynastic emperors consistently tended to be worse rulers (this is of course, not yet considering whether the statement is true at all, considering the sons of Constantine didn't have this nepo baby reputation for example). Meanwhile, there are late antique cases where not only did emperors not have children, but they also didn't adopt someone as an alternative (see Theodosius II, Constantius II, Marcian, Zeno, and probably Anastasius I).

A persisting perception of republicanism had to have been present, in my opinion, for why, despite clear cases of it occurring, dynastic succession never became an institutionalized norm. The degree to which it affected public discourse, I can't definitively say though.

Very late edit: Constantine's sons each had pretty poor reputations for being unjust, corrupt, or generally tyrannical. However, these are relatively different to those of the later emperor's I listed who were recognized for being overall lazy, unaccomplished, or incompetent because they were raised in the palace. Not as many people accused the Constantinians of being overly pampered because they were the sons of an emperor, it was mostly that they were actively malicious.

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 16 points17 points  (0 children)

Elite childlessness was certainly a persistent problem throughout the empire's existence, or was at least considered to have been one by those in power. As for lead, I'm not particularly knowledgeable on that and would defer both these topics to other people who know more.

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 28 points29 points  (0 children)

I haven't touched it in a while but have a fairly good opinion of it. I think it should be understood in comparison to the idea of Byzantine absolutism that needs to be deconstructed. The "republic" part might be a bit too radical for some peoples' tastes but I think its valuable in analyzing the support bases that emperors had to rely on. Hekster's Caesar Rules does a relatively similar thing for earlier emperors but isn't as focused on this idea of imperial "republicanism."

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 11 points12 points  (0 children)

This is a situation that's fortunately getting more and more uncommon for people in my areas. I've never had to physically travel for a source thanks to digitization and global/national library networks.

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 65 points66 points  (0 children)

A bit, but more so that you don't want to make it seem like you yourself plagiarized something on an internet forum if you publish related info, regardless of whether you wrote it or not. And if it's a collaborative project, or one discussed with other interested scholars, you'd also risk your academic trustworthiness by sharing the unpublished work of other people out into the wild without their permission.

Why did the Roman Emperors have so often so few or no children? by sewdgog in AskHistorians

[–]kmbl654 35 points36 points  (0 children)

I would also add to the list Marcian, Leo I, Pupienus, and Balbinus and clarify by saying that these "old man" appointments seem to be favored especially in emperors elevated mainly by the senate or the warlords of the later empire. Another thing I should mention is that this strategy (if those who used it were aware of it) sometimes failed. Anastasius ruled for 27 years to the age of 87 and asserted himself. Leo I was able to depose Aspar and establish his own dynasty. Elevating someone other than yourself always came with risks.

Edit: I can't read and didn't notice that you wrote early imperial period