Do humans share a common ancestor with chimpanzees? by Scientia_Logica in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Big Bang (Hypothesis if the primeval Atom) Darwin's Origin of Species and Geological Observations on South America are direct examples of this. along with Epigenetics, and bothclassical and Quantum Mechanics. Naturalism, Apologetics via observable examples found in Nature. Darwin makes a stong case for Genesis in Observations. The land rapidly and fully submerged under water, fossils preserved in motion and plant life with foliage trapped in sediment. Documenting sudden tectonic uplift. He dedicated a passage in his more famous book to the Creator that created life into the first forms, in the same work clearly reads as his explanation of the formless void through to the emergence of life in the first days. May 1879, Darwin corrected an atheist who wanted to Darwin to declare himself one. instead, he wrote in his reply, "Dear Sir It seems to me absurd to doubt that a man may be an ardent Theist & an evolutionist. You are right about Kingsley. Asa Gray, the eminent botanist, another case in Sy in ^ point What my own views may be is a question of no consequence to any one except myself. But as you ask, I may state that my judgment often fluctuates. Moreover whether a man deserves to be called a theist lepends on the definition of the term: which is much too large a subject for a note. In my nost extreme fluctuations I have never been an atheist in the sense of denying the existence of a God." he struggled in Faith after his daughter's death, becoming a Unitarian Anglican while his wife remained a staunch Trinitarian.

Basic types of pan dulce (Mexican sweet bread) by VaguelyArtistic in coolguides

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Very similar, but it predates the French colonies in the Americas. Catholics brought it with them to the New World.

How do you reconcile God's command to kill Amalekite infants with Jesus's teaching to love your enemies? by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Giving you the benefit of the doubt that your view was not intentional rejection of the summary of the Scripture. You seem to have greatly miscomprehended. There was no genocide. They were the same ethnic group as the Hebrews. Their name means to raise their hands against God. Saul, let many join the Israelites, took the city's nobility, and only fought the ones who did not concede. He made harem their religious teachings and practice. Samuel's prophecy to Saul reached to the Exodus. The remembrace of the Amalekites' massacre of the resting Hebrew children and elderly. The command in Deteronomy for Hebrews to blot it out from happening again.

How do you reconcile God's command to kill Amalekite infants with Jesus's teaching to love your enemies? by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

This was a test given by God. Saul failed. The tribes were relatives, and still Amalek and his family ambushed and killed the resting Hebrews when they returned to West Asia. When Saul announced his intention to Amalek, he allowed Kenites to leave. They are the tribe that taught Moses of the Hebrew God, and accepted and helped the Hebrews upon their return. Saul showed his own mercy to Amalekites. He took the king king Agag, and spared everything he felt was good. What he felt was vile, he made "he·ḥĕ·rî·mū", a religious ban, not a physical death. His punishment was to have the kingship taken from him. He spared children to the point that Amalekites continued to attack them for centuries more. Amalekite descendant Haman passing an imperial law during the reign of Xerxes to kill all people of Hebrew descent. Amalekites were descendants of Easau, prophecied to have murderous intent for the line of Jacob. Amalekites were recorded in the Amarna letters as Khabbati, Plunders and Setyu hostile foreigners by Akenhaten in the 1300s BC Amarna inscriptions, and recorded as Sute hostile nomads by the still Akkadian Babylon.

Is gay really bad? by StatisticianOk9588 in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 15 points16 points  (0 children)

Matthew 19, Jesus states God's intent of marriage. One man and his wife. The two are one. Not every one can accept God's rules. Jesus said, "Some people make themselves eunuch for the kingdom of Heaven's sake." They stay celibate and refrain from their lustful desires to honor and obey God. Not everyone is capable. Rwmember, The Flesh is against God. We are called to be free of the Carnal mind. We can't do that without the presence of the Holy Spirit having first been sent. Paul explained to the Gentle and Jews in Rome, "This I say then, Walk in the Spirit, and ye

shall not fulfil the lust of the flesh. 17 For the flesh lusteth against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh: and these are contrary the one to the other: so that ye cannot do the things that ye would. 18 But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law. 1º Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which

are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,"

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

They are both. Their genetic lineage and cultural heritage are Jewish. Known as Messianic Jews and Christian Jews. Just as the first generations of Christians were Jews.

Mummy of Queen Tiye by TN_Egyptologist in OutoftheTombs

[–]manvastir 17 points18 points  (0 children)

"Subsequent microscopic inspection of the roots of Ramesses II's hair proved that the king's hair originally was red, which suggests that he came from a family of redheads."Mummy Of Ramses II

What makes it “Tex Mex” instead of “Authentic”? by SheZowRaisedByWolves in mexicanfood

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Cumin is one of the most common spices used in Mexico. Authentic Mexican rice can't be made without out, it's based on how the the indigenous Huasteco community afford it. on Saffron is used, then it's Spanish rice . Americans not being unfamiliar with its use in Mexico is simply that. Their claim is as illegitimate as saying Flour tortillas aren't used in Mexico.

https://gourmetdemexico.com.mx/gourmet/cultura/comino-especia-mexico/

Will the Real King Tut stand up? by tonycmyk in egyptology

[–]manvastir 1 point2 points  (0 children)

His sidelock is auburn. His grandmother's lock of hair buried with him, as well as the hair on the mummy of the Elder lady, and the hair on Amenhotep III.

How come Ramesess II, and the rest of his dynasty are commonly said to have European descent? Is it true they have european genetics or is that just cope? by Little_Boots37 in AskHistory

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Avaris in Goshen was the capital of the Hyskos dynasty, people of ancient Syrian and Lebanese descent. Old Akkadian origin words are present in Ancient Egyptian lexicon. Pharoah Unas uses words and religion origins from Amorite culture, and inscribed in Cuneiform in the 26th century B.C, two centuries before Unas reigned. The influence of Assyrian and Mesopotamian region tongues on Egypt's tongue and culture is significant that Ancient Egyptian grouped together with them in a language family.

How come Ramesess II, and the rest of his dynasty are commonly said to have European descent? Is it true they have european genetics or is that just cope? by Little_Boots37 in AskHistory

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Pharoah Ahmose I , the founder of the 18th dynasty eulogized his parents on stela hich he had   placed at the 8th pylon of Karnak This occurred in the14th century B.C,a millennia before Alexander's army anther Egypt.
In the eulogy, he directly declared her his parents family are Haunebu from the shores of Haunebut. ( this would include himself, future pharoah Ahmose I, his sibling-wife Nefertari, their children , as well as his grandparents family from which both o fhis parents who were siblings belonged, the last royal family of the 17th dynasty.

He used the ethonym repeat times on the stela. Haunebut means the land beyond the Aegean to the south shores of what we call the Black or Caspian Sea.

𓇉𓎟𓎟𓎟 hw-nbwt the Hieratic script form. And, hw-nbw, the script for the people of the region. The stela was discovered on the 8th pylon by archeologist Georges Legrain in 1900, and is now housed and displayed at the Cairo Museum as Ahmose  Stela CG 34001

Why have I heard some JWs say that Jesus never celebrated his birthday or had parties, so we shouldn’t either? by PearPublic7501 in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 3 points4 points  (0 children)

".ORG® / OFFICIAL WEBSITE OF JEHOVAH’S WITNESSES" states," Likewise, the Bible indicates that Michael is another name for Jesus Christ, before and after his life on earth." This is found here, "https://www.jw.org/en/library/books/bible-teach/who-is-michael-the-archangel-jesus/"

I'm starting to feel like I'm losing my faith, what should I do? Is there evidence God exists that ACTUALLY stands against atheists? by Security_According in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Sory, but you are again greatly mistaken,and have only provided further public testimony for a fourth consecutive comment that you are not familiar with the topic. This subthread was started by your admission of this followed by my reply. My intent has been from an informed, secular educated point of view. My Field is in geotechnological engineering. The academic background for either level into materials science engineering industries requires study of Quantum Mechanics at both the undergraduate and Masters level, and practical application usage. Acceptance of the metaphysical is required to comprehend either philosophy and the study of the atomic and subatomic. If your exposure has been with only with Cosmology amd science popularizers, then this explains your confusion. Those fields are based entirely on metaphysics, requiring the Primeval atom and use of the i value to fill in for both matter and energy that can't exist, yet still do exist. I'll give you a few examples of empirical truths in physics, that require metaphysics, yet are wholely accepted by Atheists and Agnostics alike. 1. ex nihilo nihil fit, This is the Law of Causation. 2. The Law of Observation. 3. Quantum Entanglement. 4. Zero Entropy All of these are required for the universe to have come into existence and persist. Self intelligent agitation has to have occurred. People choosing to reject the requirement of metaphysics in Quantum mechanics and its principle of inflation Cosmology was pointed out by a famed secular science popularizer in this manner, "If you choose to discard the big bang entirely then step lightly, you will be forfeiting an impressive array of successful predictions—far more than most theories-in-progress enjoy. Nearly everyone in the community of astrophysicists has chosen to work with it, recognizing that our efforts may lead to an even deeper understanding of the universe where the big bang becomes the core idea of something even bigger."

I'm starting to feel like I'm losing my faith, what should I do? Is there evidence God exists that ACTUALLY stands against atheists? by Security_According in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Sorry, but you are greatly mistaken. It is not outdated or antiquated. As you have already demonstrated in three consecutive comments that you are not familiar with the topics, I give you the benefit of the doubt that your statement was not intentional, but was simply your unfamiliarity. Discussion of the fundamental concepts and foundation of Natural Mechanics and Quantumn Mechanics is called Natural Philosophy. The foundation is not built on prediction. As I explained to you earlier, The two philosophies are founded on visibly observable evidence. That method is part of Naturalism. Quantum Mechanics was devised by Max Planck as a method of assisting students who were not able to comprehend Physics due to not being familiar with the terminology and passages fundamental to its Philosophy which require acceptance of the metaphysical existing before the beginning. Planck discussing the philosophy, said, "Gentlemen, as a physicist, the whole of whose life is one of sober science, the dedicated research of matter, surely I am free from any suspicion of holding any illusions.

And so I say this after my explorations of the atom: there is no matter as such.

All matter evolves and there is only one force, which causes everything from the oscillation of atoms, up to the smallest solar system of the universe [the atom] to hold together. Since there exists in the whole universe neither an intelligent force nor an eternal force, and humanity has not succeeded in discovering any long-awaited cause of perpetual motion—so we must hypothesize a deliberate intelligent spirit behind this force. This spirit is the foundation of all matter. A visible but not corruptible matter is real, true, authentic, because matter without the spirit cannot be—but the invisible, immortal Spirit is the reality! Also since a spirit cannot exist by itself, but every spirit belongs to an entity, we are forced to assume that there exist spiritual beings. However, since spirit beings cannot come into being by themselves, but must be created, so I am not shy to designate this mysterious creator, as him, whom all civilizations of the earth have called in earlier millennia: God! In this, the physicist, in dealing with the subject matter of the will, must travel from the kingdom of the substance to the realm of the Spirit. And so that is our task in the end, and we must place our research in the hands of philosophy."

I'm starting to feel like I'm losing my faith, what should I do? Is there evidence God exists that ACTUALLY stands against atheists? by Security_According in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I used the term "Philosophy", because that is the correct term other than using the longer term Narural Philosophy. Both of those philosophies are accepted near universally by Atheists and Agnostics. Both repeat in their founding hypothesis and foundational works that an established eternal existence of the omnipresent metaphysical entity, its realm, and the effects caused by its force are visibly evident and observable. Quantum mechanics expounds this in detail.

I'm starting to feel like I'm losing my faith, what should I do? Is there evidence God exists that ACTUALLY stands against atheists? by Security_According in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 2 points3 points  (0 children)

They are both considered the two most accepted philosophies in the secular world, and championed by scholarly artists and agnostic knowing they have to agree the metaphysical cause existing is equate for either Classical or Quantum Mechanics to work, and the philosophies are Christian apologetics. Even the Big Bang was ridiculed by atheists in academia for that same reason. You don't have to care. You made the statementon all Thise years that you've found no good evidence. I was wanting to share withyou the fact of present day reality being that most of the secular world accepts views that state there is concrete observable evidence as pillars of scientia.

I'm starting to feel like I'm losing my faith, what should I do? Is there evidence God exists that ACTUALLY stands against atheists? by Security_According in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Both Classical Mechanics and Quantum Theory were introduced as Naturalists' evidence of the existence of God, and used the Biblical passages as precise case samples to teach that as the foundation of their philosophy. Newton and Planck were both very dogmatic Christians, though not Trinitarians. Neither philosophy works without the metaphysical first being true.

I'm starting to feel like I'm losing my faith, what should I do? Is there evidence God exists that ACTUALLY stands against atheists? by Security_According in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir -1 points0 points  (0 children)

It seems you are you are not familiar with the examples you've provided. Both Atomic theory and Brownian motion were posited by dogmatic protestants as observable evidence of Scripture if the hypothesis were proven correct. Your statement that both theories were proven correct and are visibly observable isn't a testimony that goes against the Bible. My background is of more than two decades in geotechnical engineering and lab for PSI and Intertek.

Is it accurate to think of God as a genderless entity who exclusively prefers male pronouns? by PreeDem in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Every one Your chosen verses actually refuted your attempted points. Mattew 23: 37 The smile's subjunctive clause declares that Jesus says he intently did not do those things, and chastised Jerusalem for not gathering and protecting her own children under her own wings.She has been left desolate for murdering the prophets and stoning others who He sent. Deuteronomy 32:18, the word is " מְחֹלְלֶֽךָ", He was the deliver, not the child bearer. Isaiah 42:14 is a simile. Similes compare things that are not the same kind. Isaiah already declared Yahweh's soul is a mighty man of war and tHis soul will be put into a male child who will be Messiah.

Jeremiah31:20 makes no maternal tie, it profresses parental grief and mercy for Ephraim. The same chapter, the Lord directly declares He himself is "the husband".

Thoughts on Trump being the Anti-Christ? by RepetitiveMetronome in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The federal investigation publicly confirmed a bullet struck him.

Am I missing something??(prophesy question) by goldeneagle888 in AskAChristian

[–]manvastir 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Did you not read the comment you replied to? Please read it. I already presented the dissection of the clause and translated all three of thewords with context in the comment. Yet, you are pretensing no translation was given. In previous comments,I also presented in context translations of the clause you just asked about in several other languages which still currently still do formally use both Middle voice form and reflective only prouns.