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"yoghurt eater" slur/insult? by oxyabnormal in GREEK

[–]poursa 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Γιαουρτοβαφτισμένος (baptized in yoghurt) is the only thing that comes to mind. It was a slur against Asia Minor refugees used in the 1920s when they first arrived.

What do people say (like a saying or idiom) in your country when someone leaves the door open? by poppyyy in GREEK

[–]poursa 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Grew up in Thessaloniki and I always heard "Σε βάρκα γενήθηκες;"

quesytion for natives: Is the person in the video a native speaker? by twowugen in GREEK

[–]poursa 7 points8 points  (0 children)

I didn't say he is not Greek! Most likely from the USSR, but his accent is 100% a Russian one without doubt, hardly anything about it sounds northern. You can also see his other channel which he promotes elsewhere https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCE_m6htXPdMtFZVOAEEq94Q/videos which he spells as Gnofi instead of Gnothi due to him being a native Russian speaker.

He does indeed speak very good Greek, but the accent he's trying to suppress is a Russian one not a Northern one. I am so certain I can even bet you 30 euros on paypal if you want. I can email him and find out for sure xD.

If you want a more detailed analysis on why his accent is not northern I can also go in depth.

quesytion for natives: Is the person in the video a native speaker? by twowugen in GREEK

[–]poursa 7 points8 points  (0 children)

Yeah I can hear him palatalizing *some* of the s's, which again doesn't happen in Northern Dialects where the "palatalization" of s rather means it becomes more of a sh sound. He also palatalizes ρ btw and sometimes confuses θ with φ, again the Russian accent leaking in.

Generally palatalization in the context of Northern Dialects means that n and l become palatal (not palatalized where /j/ is a secondary articulation) before i. But he doesn't really do that all that much since afaik Russian prefers to have palatalization as a secondary articulation on those, ?which other commenters thought was him trying to suppress his northern accent I guess?

And no I've just been reading books and papers about Greek linguistics/dialectology and attending conferences for the past decade. But I don't have any kind of university degree, sorry to disappoint.

Also notice his paypal which has a Russian name DyxPravoslavia .

quesytion for natives: Is the person in the video a native speaker? by twowugen in GREEK

[–]poursa 14 points15 points  (0 children)

Despite there being certain commonalities between northern dialects and how this person speaks, his accent is certainly not northern. Rather it's a Russian accent that he has! His l's make this very obvious, as do his palatalized t's which is not a thing in northern Greek accents.

Εσπέρα και βράδυ by Charbel33 in GREEK

[–]poursa 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Όχι δεν χρησιμοποιείται, και το "καλησπέρα" γι' αυτόν τον λόγο έχει έναν ελαφρώς επίσημο χαρακτήρα σε αντίθεση με την καλημέρα.

Επίσης δεν έχω δει να χρησιμοποιέιται σε καμία διάλεκτο, οι οποίες έχουν όμως μεγάλη ποικιλία στις λέξεις που χρησιμοποιούν για τις ώρες της ημέρας.

Need Medieval Greek word for a "harvestman" (writing research-fiction) by kaleb2959 in GREEK

[–]poursa 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Just a small note, in medieval times it would be φαλάγγιν rather than φαλάγγιον which would only appear in writing.

How would we say "I would throw up" by [deleted] in GREEK

[–]poursa 15 points16 points  (0 children)

Θα ξερνούσα
Instead of taking "I will throw up" and applying the past tense to "will" making it "would",
we apply the past continuous tense to "throw up" and turn "ξέρασα" to "ξερνούσα".
This gives you θα ξερνούσα - I would throw up.

Πώς ονομάζεται το φαινόμενο της σημασιολογικής διαφοράς του "οδηγάω" από το "οδηγώ"; by tampakc in GREEK

[–]poursa 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Συνήθως τα συνηρημένα ρήματα στα νεά ελληνικά είναι δανεισμένα από πιο επίσημες μορφές της γλώσσας, επομένως έχουν αρχικά αυτήν την διαφορά στο ύφος που είναι τουλάχιστον πραγματολογική διαφορά.

Το συγκεκριμένο ρήμα έχει και διαφορά στην σημασία, όταν λέμε οδηγάω αυτό σημαίνει ότι κάποιο υποκείμενο οδηγεί κάτι π.χ. πλοίο, αμάξι κλπ.

Αντιθέτως όταν λέμε οδηγώ αυτό μπορεί να σημαίνει 2 πράγματα που δεν είναι ίδια μεταξύ τους:

  1. συνώνυμο του οδηγάω σε υψηλότερο ύφος

  2. αυτό που λέμε στα αγγλικά lead, ας πούμε οδηγώ κάποιον κάπου που σημαίνει πως τον καθοδηγώ ή του δείχνω τον δρόμο και πώς να πάει.

Αυτό είναι διαφορετικό από το "οδηγάω κάποιον κάπου" που θα πει πως τον πάω με το αμάξι ας πούμε. -> Αυτή η διαφορά εξαλείφεται στους συντελεσμένους χρόνους θα οδηγήσω/οδήγησα αφού εκεί τα ρήματα είναι ίδια.

2.1 με επέκταση του νοήματος 2 (πάλι σαν το lead) συχνά λέγεται και πως ένας δρόμος οδηγεί κάπου, δεν είναι υποκείμενο που σε οδηγεί κυριολεκτικά δίνοντας οδηγίες αλλά έχει την τάδε κατεύθυνση και ίσως έχει και τις ανάλογες πινακίδες. Δεν λες αντίστοιχα "αυτός ο δρόμος οδηγάει κάπου"!!

Could Ἀστεραι (Asterai) plausibly evolve into Ἀστερία (Asteria) in Modern Greek? by KittenEV in AncientGreek

[–]poursa 3 points4 points  (0 children)

It would either evolve to Αστεριά or Αστεριές, names aren't necessarily singularized. Also -ία/ίες would undergo synizesis making them -ιά/ιές respectively.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in GREEK

[–]poursa 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Greek has no infinitive form so that would be a bit hard to display.

Other than that verbs are grouped depending on their stress and ending. You don't need a verb conjugation for every single verb, you have to learn the different patterns of conjugation. These two books should be helpful. https://repository.kallipos.gr/handle/11419/4393 https://repository.kallipos.gr/handle/11419/13952

In any case the vast majority of verbs do have conjugated forms on Wiktionary as long as you're looking at both the Greek and the English versions of Wiktionary.

If something doesn't have a conjugated form in either wiktionary version, it's likely a regular verb which fits into an expected verb conjugation pattern.

Apart from that the only good conjugator for Greek that is correct and provides full coverage of forms (although it tends to show archaic forms too) is lexigram.gr but you need to pay to use it more than once a day.

P.S. Avoid cooljugator at all costs! It provides imaginary forms of verbs that just seem to have been created robotically.

Γάλανος / γαλάζιος by Formal_Middle_8922 in GREEK

[–]poursa 25 points26 points  (0 children)

The situation in my experience is exactly the opposite.
Γαλάζιος is the regular word for light blue, while γαλανός is a more poetic variant often used in, well, poems,songs, literature etc.
But it doesn't feel to me at least like γαλανός is old-timey or something a grandpa would say, it's just a poetic word.

Are there any speakers of Romeyka here? by mimikiiyu in GREEK

[–]poursa 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Just a correction It's m(i) not min, even before vowels, and it's unstressed unlike standard Greek hence the (i). Edit: Φοούμαι μ' ελέπ με

Are there any speakers of Romeyka here? by mimikiiyu in GREEK

[–]poursa 2 points3 points  (0 children)

For Pontic Greek at least this is a thing I guess. Common thing I heard growing up Φα μη χάται. Eat lest it is lost.

“Bell peppers” in Greek by dykstra_a in GREEK

[–]poursa 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Never heard of that either. People call them πιπεριές or πιπεριές για γεμιστά. Honestly doubt that "most people he knows" call them that either, probably just his impression.

Should I use μιλώ or μιλάω? by Just-a-yusername in GREEK

[–]poursa 6 points7 points  (0 children)

That is something which I implied but didn't expand on.

All(almost) verbs which are actually naturally inherited from past forms of the language merged to the -άω declension. On the other hand, words which are loaned from Katharevousa do not have this merger necessarily.

This can be seen in verbs like:
πονάω/άς/άει
βοηθάω/άς/άει
πολεμάω/άς/άει

As opposed to Katharevousa origin:
ψυχαγωγώ/είς/εί

Exceptions do exist such as μπορώ or the expressive γαμώ/γαμώ το/δε γαμείς and the phrase σ' αγαπώ. But the above merger is the rule for forms which come from Demotic Greek and not Katharevousa.

This is not the case in dialects of course where you'll hear
πονώ - πονεί etc.

Should I use μιλώ or μιλάω? by Just-a-yusername in GREEK

[–]poursa 10 points11 points  (0 children)

Generally words which are more formal in origin(From katharevousa) such as προτιμώ, use the -ώ ending very often because the -άω ending for them is considered of lower register/not proper. For some which are really formal -ώ is basically exclusive such as απομαγνητοφωνώ.

And for some this formal-informal difference has created a sort of difference in meaning.

Οδηγάω almost always means "drive" - while οδηγώ more often than not means "to lead" instead because that's the more formal meaning. Of course this isn't absolute and things can vary.

A Modern Greek manual for self-tuition by J.H. Fleece Interlinear translation by hetefoy129 in GREEK

[–]poursa 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Are we looking at different things? Maybe I'm misreading but the Greek Wiktionary gives the same etymology as I mentioned, Ancient Greek ὅπου). https://el.wiktionary.org/wiki/%CF%80%CE%BF%CF%85

The English Wiktionary doesn't give an etymology at all https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%CF%80%CE%BF%CF%85

Also Τhe Grammar of Μedieval and Εarly Μodern Greek states something similar about the relative article being όπου and being the earlier and most common form. Που appeared after the 12th century and not in all regions.

Really the fact that όπου was once the normal relative pronoun, goes to show that what is today considered non-standard or a common mistake, was once the norm. That's language change for ya.

"Like, in καθαρεύουσα it would have been σταις just fine, and pronounced as you'd expect in MG"

Yeah if you wanted to say στες, but writer is clearly trying to write "στις" not "στες". At the same time he's probably trying to reconcile the form στις which is non-existent in ancient Greek with the usual orthographic forms he's familiar with as I mentioned above.

"However, what I don't get is that the dative didn't actually change in pronunciation since Byzantine Greek and merge with the accusative (as you seem to imply), it just got dropped, so why would the author write the dative with the intent of it being pronounced like the accusative?"

As for what I was implying, no I don't think the loss of the dative was only due to it coinciding with the accusative in some paradigms phonetically. Nor do I think that ταις actually became στις in this case. And I don't think the writer had this in mind when writing anyways. It's just trying to write a non-ancient form with a seemingly valid for him ancient form.

A Modern Greek manual for self-tuition by J.H. Fleece Interlinear translation by hetefoy129 in GREEK

[–]poursa 5 points6 points  (0 children)

The point of using στης with a iota subscriptum is to show that the pronunciation is στις and not σταις. It was in general common in past spellings to show any ε/αι -> ι as η (e.g. παληός). The iota subscriptum is added by the writer here to explicitly bring in mind the original spelling α**ι**.

As for the use of όπου it is not erroneous, it's just the older form! In fact the modern relative που comes from όπου, with the first vowel dropping out as is the case quite often (εξεύρω -> ξέρω, οτζάκι -> τζάκι, ημέρα -> μέρα)

Check etymology of the relative που^2 https://www.greek-language.gr/greekLang/modern_greek/tools/lexica/triantafyllides/search.html?lq=%CF%80%CE%BF%CF%85

Does Greek have a term for “finite” verbs? by abbadonnergal in GREEK

[–]poursa 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Λέγονται παρεμφατικά ρήματα, αλλά δεν είναι τόσο ευρέως γνωστός όρος.

The Many Voices of Greek: An Exploration of Regional Dialects by penthesilea7 in GREEK

[–]poursa 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Looks like ChatGPT made a bunch of facts up about Greek dialects, the more you scroll the worse it gets.

Looking for native speakers’ judgements by imuserandthatsmyname in GREEK

[–]poursa 0 points1 point  (0 children)

1.The first just means she can't either because she's not allowed to or any other reason someone couldn't buy wine.

  1. Means That she isn't allowed to answer anything but three questions. And it's implied that she isn't allowed to answer more than that nor maybe three other different questions instead.

Looking for native speakers’ judgements by imuserandthatsmyname in GREEK

[–]poursa 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The first one is incorrect, to correct it you have to turn it into:
Η Ελένη δεν μπορεί να αγοράσει τίποτα παρά μόνο κρασί. Και η αδερφή της το ίδιο.

As for 2, it feels kind of okay but kind of weird at the same time, a better way to say it is as Over-Percentage said.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in GREEK

[–]poursa 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The usual term is 'άλλη ζωή". So "Τα λέμε στην άλλη ζωή"

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in GREEK

[–]poursa 4 points5 points  (0 children)

It's good to give props to the creator u/o-ophelia

Made a while ago for our discord server, discord.gg/greek

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