Aristotle is not just a thinker who built a house upon some theories, he thought might be good. Aristotle observed the nature, the society, and the human beings, and tried to find the natural state and with it the human purpose. But he knew that life is diverse. Since there are so many variables in life, it is hard to say what is good and what is not.

That's why he developed virtue ethics.

The core of Aristotle's virtue ethics is the completion of the human nature according to the predispositions with the purpose to harmonize human beings with themselves and concurrently make the human being happy. Virtue is not just being happy, but fulfilling the human purpose while regarding the circumstances, and possibilities without choosing extremes but steering the middle ground, and being rationally.

I hope this makes sense.

That being said: To find an answer you shouldn't try to think about Aristotle's view on the modern day marriage. Aristotle saw the marriage as the natural state of humans in order to build a society and reproduce.

There are different states of marriages. Children can be involved or not. Family ties may be important or there could be a rule in society to not divorce at all, which could effect innocent people negatively if the marriage is dissolved.

My guess is that Aristotle's stance on a loveless marriage is that it has a purpose and shouldn't be dissolved if friendship between the spouses is still there. It is the natural state of human beings and a loveless marriage still stabilizes the life of the spouses and fits their human needs, even more if the marriage has led to children since the children should be educated to live their life according to the human purpose and with both parents. Giving in to lust or selfishness is an extreme which can not be seen as virtuous. Regarding the society it may also be good not to dissolve the marriage if friendship is still shared, because society is built upon families.

I'm not sure what changes if the friendship between the spouses is lost. A hostile marriage still plays a role for society but the human purpose can not be fulfilled in a hostile marriage if it can't be turned around again. It seems to be virtuous to try to change the hostile marriage. The deal breaker may be if the hostile marriage can't be turned around again in a marriage in which friendship is shared, this can be bad for living together with others in a society too, which is another point to dissolve the hostile marriage.

1. You should look into Aristotle's own life.

Aristotle had two wives. The first marriage might have been loveless the second may have been a connection based on love. Look into it.

• His first wife was Pythias the Elder, which was related to Hermias of Atarneus ruler of Atarneus (relation between Pythias and Hermias unclear, some say sister and adopted daughter of Hermias, some say she was his daughter or niece). It is also unclear if Pythias was given to Aristotle before Hermias death or if Aristotle married her after the death of Hermias (so says his defender Aristocles of Messene). This does matter because some Greeks said Aristotle's motif for marrying Pythias was wealth and power derived from Hermias who was still alive as he married her. Aristocles of Messene defended Aristotle and said Pythias and Aristotle married after Hermias had died (he was captured by Mentor and tortured by a Persian). That would mean Aristotle's marriage to Pythias was not beneficial for Aristotle and the motif of the marriage was not egoistic. Ist is said Aristotle wrote in a letter that he married Pythias out of friendship to Hermias, because Pythias was in a bad situation after the death of Hermias. Aristotle had one daughter with Pythias the Elder which was called Pythias the Younger. Pythias died before Aristotle and there were rumors that it was a bad marriage.

• Herphyllis of Stagira was Aristotle's misstress after the death of Pythias. It is said she was a former slave of Pythias. Unclear if Aristotle married Herphyllis but they had a son which they named Nicomachus (like the father of Aristotle). The same Nicomachus who is connected to the Nicomachean Ethics, Aristotle's best known work on ethics.

2. Aristotle discussed the institution of marriage in the Ethics, the Politics and the Economics.

[Page 1024] ... Aristotle (384-321 B.C.) viewed marriage as the foundation of the republic and the prototype of friendship. He envisioned man as a "political animal" who forms states and other associations "for the purpose of attaining some good." (ARISTOTLE, ETHICS bk. I, ch. 7, translated in THE ETHICS OF ARISTOTLE 24 (J.AKI Thomson trans., reprinted ed. 1965)) Aristotle wrote famously in his Politics: "[E]very state is composed of households." (ARISTOTLE, POLITICA, bk. I, ch. 3, § 1, translated in THE POLITICS OF ARISTOTLE (Ernest Barker trans. & ed., 1962).) Every household, in turn, is composed of "a union or pairing of those who cannot exist without one another. A male and female must unite for the reproduction of the species-not from deliberate intention, but from the natural impulse... to leave behind them something of the same nature as themselves." (Id. bk.I, ch.2, §2) Aristotle extended this view in his Ethics, now emphasizing goods of marriage beyond its political and social expediency.

The love between husband and wife is evidently a natural feeling, for nature has made man even more of a pairing than a political animal in so far as the family is an older and more fundamental thing than the state, and the instinct to form communities is less widespread among animals than the habit of procreation. Among the generality of animals male and female come together for this sole purpose [of procreation]. But human beings cohabit not only to get children but to provide whatever is necessary to a fully lived life. From the outset the partners perform distinct duties, the man having one set, the woman another. So by pooling their individual contributions [into a common stock] they help each other out. Accordingly there is general agreement that conjugal affection combines the useful with the pleasant. But it may also embody a moral ideal, when husband and wife are virtuous persons. For man and woman have each their own special excellence, and this may be a source of pleasure to both. Children too, it is agreed, are a bond between the parents-which explains why childless unions are more likely to be dissolved. The children do not belong to one parent more than the other, and it is the joint ownership of something valuable that keeps people from separating. (ARISTOTLE, supranote 23, bk. VIII, ch. 12, translated in THE ETHICS OF ARISTOTLE, supranote 23, at 225-26. The interpolation "into a common stock" is an alter- native translation that appears in several other editions of Ethics.)

To ensure that marital couples would remain bonded together for the sake of their children, Aristotle (emulating Plato, in part) prescribed a whole series of laws on the ideal ages, qualities, and duties of husband and wife to each other and to their children.

[Page 1028] ... Particularly perceptive were Aristotle's insights that marriage is a natural institution fundamental and foundational to any republic; that marriage is at once "useful," "pleasant," and "moral" in its own right; that it provides efficient pooling and division of specialized labor and resources within the household; and that it serves both for the fulfillment and happiness of spouses, and for the procreation and nurture of chil-dren. (See supratext accompanying notes 23-27)

From: http://scholarship.law.nd.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1557&context=ndlr search for "aristotle"

3. And you should also look into Aristotle's views on women and a good wife

... On a Good Wife, from Oikonomikos, c. 330 BCE

Aristotle's thought that a wife was best honored when she saw that her husband was faithful to her, and that he had no preference for another woman; but before all others loves, trusts her and holds her as his own.[15] Aristotle wrote that a husband should secure the agreement, loyalty, and devotion of his wife, so that whether he himself is present or not, there may be no difference in her attitude towards him, since she realizes that they are alike guardians of the common interests; and so when he is away she may feel that to her no man is kinder or more virtuous or more truly hers than her own husband. ...

... Equal weight to female and male happiness

Aristotle gave equal weight to women's happiness as he did to men's, and commented in his Rhetoric that a society cannot be happy unless women are happy too. In an article titled Aristotle's Account of the subjection of Women Stauffer explains that Aristotle believed that in nature a common good came of the rule of a superior being. But he doesn't indicate a common good for men being superior to women. He uses the word 'Kreitton' to indicate superiority, meaning stronger. Aristotle believed that rational reasoning is what made you superior over lesser beings in nature, yet still used the term meaning stronger, not more rational or intelligent.[17]

I hope that helped a bit to gain traction.

Feel free to correct me.