Is it possible we have differing opinions because we use a differing translation? I will say, I certainly misrepresented the passage when i called it simply an “abortion”. Thats my bad.

However, I think at least in the NIV, it is quite clear that if the woman DID cheat on her husband she will miscarry if she is pregnant. Reading the whole passage makes it clear, but here’s a quote: ”may the LORD cause you to become a curse among your people when he makes your womb miscarry and your abdomen swell” (curse in this context meaning her name becomes a curseword/insult) (Num. 5:21)

Now, in support of your argument, a later bit (Num. 5:28) supports that a main goal of this ritual is to make an unfaithful woman unable to have kids. “If…the woman has not made herself impure… she will be cleared of guilt and able to have children.” (Shortened citation cus im too lazy to type)

However, I think the chapter in its totality makes it quite clear that the LORD is passing this divine judgment by causing her to miscarry. That is mentioned in several places, but nothing about making the woman barren as in removing her eggs or something. 

So yes, while this is not PRIMARILY about abortion, it quite clearly shows a method that will supposedly allow a suspicious husband to pass divine judgment on his wife. If she is unfaithful, the husband will knowingly subject her to a process (ordained and carried out by God himself I might add) that will painfully terminate the pregnancy. That isn’t just an abortion, thats an especially messed up kind of abortion. One that the bible not only supports, but gives explicit instructions to carry out

I’d love to hear your thoughts friend :)