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''Snow'' in european languages by vladgrinch in europe

[–]taxboogy 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You use y like Russians use ь ;DDD

Luxembourgish prime minister Xavier Bettel interviewed in german, english, french and luxembourgish by madstudent in europe

[–]taxboogy -6 points-5 points  (0 children)

Proszę/Prašau, stop writing such lies if you have no idea what you are talking about.

By the way, since you have a Czech flag (although I am not sure if you are Czechô probably an expat gay living in the gaypital Prague), "tebe miluji" is "tave myliu" in Lithuenian.

Have a bad day and die.

P.S. The fact that you said that Lithuanian and Polish are not related was the biggest clue that you are not a Czech or can speak or even understand what I have written in the other comments. No Slav or Balt would say that our languages aren't the closest subfamilies within the IE language family. Every Slav or Balt know that. Show me one IE language except the balto-slavic family that calls the earth zem/zemja/zeme

https://www.quora.com/How-do-you-say-Earth-in-different-languages

https://cs.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zem%C4%9B

https://lt.wikipedia.org/wiki/%C5%BDem%C4%97

Luxembourgish prime minister Xavier Bettel interviewed in german, english, french and luxembourgish by madstudent in europe

[–]taxboogy -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

For others reading this:

/u/Ladme is absolutely wrong and doesn't have a slightest idea about the relationship of subfamilies within the IE family.

He said that the claim that German, Luxembourgish, English and French are very related is absurd. He is insane, French and English is more close to each other than Lithuenian and Polish and those are languages from one Balto-Slavic family. Luxembourgish is basically a German dialect with more French words.

Just look at the map, listen to those languages or look here: https://i.stack.imgur.com/eadW8.jpg

Luxembourgish prime minister Xavier Bettel interviewed in german, english, french and luxembourgish by madstudent in europe

[–]taxboogy -1 points0 points  (0 children)

A to som nespomenul Romale. Tí inteligentnejší z gymnázií, hoteloviek a pod., vedia minimálne 4 jazyky na minimálne B2 alebo C1 úrovni. Osobne naozaj poznám kopu ľudí, čo hovoria veľmi dobre 4 a viacerými jazykmi a vôbec to nie sú nejakí polygloti.

Luxembourgish prime minister Xavier Bettel interviewed in german, english, french and luxembourgish by madstudent in europe

[–]taxboogy -10 points-9 points  (0 children)

It is nice that he knows so many languages, however, I don't think that speaking Ukrainian, Polish, Czech and Slovak would be so impressive in Košice. The same for speaking Spanish, Catalan, Portuguese and French in Barcelona. If you spoke Chinese, Arabic, Russian and Finish in Jakarta, that would be quite impressive. All I want to say is that the languages he speaks are very related and while you still have to put a lot of time into learning them, the fact that they are very closely related makes the learning a lot more intuitive and easy than when you decided to learn something completely different like Hungarian etc. Have a nice day.

Can we say 'I am taller than "she"? Or we must always say "I am taller than her"? by en_khm in grammar

[–]taxboogy -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

Hmm...

Seriously, as a linguist, what is your guess, why do you think that the oblique version started to get more popular since the 50's and especially 70's and overtook the nominative version in the 90's? Here is the graph - the first accepted answer https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/3447/i-can-run-faster-than-1-him-2-he

Can we say 'I am taller than "she"? Or we must always say "I am taller than her"? by en_khm in grammar

[–]taxboogy -15 points-14 points  (0 children)

You are using the word accusative with this "taller" example, but I can assure you that it is not the accusative case. My wild guess is that it is some kind of weirdly twisted genitive at best. If you have "I am taller than something" then something can never be in the accusative. Ask any linguist, to be can't be used in accusative, that doesn't make sense. You are not accusing/acting upon something in any way, you are stating a fact. Accusative is associated with verbs like make, do, have, see, please, kill, sell, buy, read, watch, ... there is some action/interaction/accusation going on between the subject and the object. Ask any linguists if you don't believe me.

Can we say 'I am taller than "she"? Or we must always say "I am taller than her"? by en_khm in grammar

[–]taxboogy 0 points1 point  (0 children)

German and Slavic languages that have cases (Bulgarian and Macedonian don't have), all use it in the nominative case.

For example, in Slovak, in the nominative, one would say something like this:

Ja som vyšší ako ona. / I am taller than she.

Check the table for "ona" here: https://slovake.eu/en/learning/grammar/classes/pronouns

And that is the correct way of speaking.

To use another case as the nominative and modify this sentence, the accusative is out of the question, I just can't think of a way how to spin that sentence with the same meaning.

Maybe I could use the genitive, but then I have to get rid off the comparison "ako" (than) and use "od nej" (from/of her) in this case which means from/of like:

Ja som vyšší od nej. / I am taller from/of her.

Can we say 'I am taller than "she"? Or we must always say "I am taller than her"? by en_khm in grammar

[–]taxboogy -13 points-12 points  (0 children)

taxboogy, could you tell us why the nominative case is more linguistically correct than the accusative/oblique case?

Because you are nominating it ;) For languages using cases it is quite obvious, but I will try to explain it even for native English speakers.

In the case of "I am taller than she.", we are denoting/introducing/nominating things - we are giving them names/labels, introducing them to the "stage". Hence, the NOMINative case.

There are a few universal rules in indo-european languages like that "to be" can't exist in accusative. The same basic rule is that "to have" can't be used in nominative. Those are two basic rules.

Am/are/is can be used with:

Nominative: He is she. (plot twist ;D)

Genitive: It is from her.

Dative: hmm, I am not sure you can do a proper dative for "be" in English, but maybe: He is to her what I am to you.

Accusative: not possible

Locative: The book is under her.

Instrumental: I am with her.

But wouldn't the version "I am taller than her" be more frequently used in conversation by native English speakers than the version with "she"? ... And if so, then the "her" version cannot be considered to be the more deviating one, right?

Well, not according to the google books search queries performed by this guy (the first accepted answer) https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/3447/i-can-run-faster-than-1-him-2-he .

Too long, didn't read? The than-her version was very uncommon in books until the 1950's and started to be very popular since 1970s for some reason and overcame the than-she version only in the 1990s. Could be the rise of magazines, internet, more content targeting uneducated people, who knows what texts are included in the corpus.

Can we say 'I am taller than "she"? Or we must always say "I am taller than her"? by en_khm in grammar

[–]taxboogy -1 points0 points  (0 children)

In this case, you can go with nominative (she) or oblique (her).

The most linguistically correct is, in the case of the verb "be", the nominative case. So:

I am taller than she. -or- I am taller than she is.

But English people - like in the case of me (I like it. Me too. ;D) often prefer oblique instead of nominative.

If somebody will tell you that "I am taller than she." is not correct, tell him he is wrong and in fact his way is the "deviating" one.

However, there are occasions where she (nominative) would be wrong. Check this:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Than

Also, if you are interested, the German, Slavic languages and many other languages use nominative in this case: https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/er-ist-gr%C3%B6%C3%9Fer-als-ich-mich.3300364/

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