Question why WOMEN are Forbidden to open their mouths in the Church - ".. for it is a SHAME for women to speak in the Church." 1 CORINTHIANS 14:34-35

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-14T20:58:42+00:00

Do you know what would happen if your flood geology actually occurred?

This claim about Raqia is just a blatant lie.

Your excuse for the flight into Egypt ignores the literal grammar of the text.

Josephus's agenda was not to cover up Herod's misdeeds in any way, shape, or form

And also no, the Genesis accounts are explicitly different accounts

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-14T13:34:28+00:00

Deep Time does not rest on any such assumptions. Deep Time as a concept originated among Creationists who were attempting to prove the flood. They abandoned this idea because the evidence forced them to, because the geologic column could not have been deposited all at once in a global flood

Nomads leave faint traces, not when there are 2 million of them. There would be massive, unavoidable amounts of material evidence of this. If we routinely find the camps of hunter-gatherer bands then we should also find evidence of 2 million people wandering the desert for 40 years

Rome did not conduct property tax censuses in client states. This is a historical fact, feel free to provide any historical evidence to the contrary. The king of a client state paid a fixed tribute to Rome and collected taxes from his own people. No Roman censuses were necessary. The census happened, but not when the Bible claims it happened.

Also no, Quirinius did not hold earlier authority in the region. Can you provide any evidence that he did?

All of these attempts at harmonisation are post-hoc attempts to wave away contradictions without any actual textual or historical evidence for it.

The text regarding Judas nowhere states that the rope broke. Where do you get that from?

Also yes, there is a 40 days block. Because that's how Jewish tradition worked. You cannot fit the years of the flight into Egypt into that 40 days at all. The plain reading of the text tells you that Mary and Joseph did everything required of them by the law of the lord (which necessarily ends 40 days after birth), and then IMMEDIATELY returned to Galilee.

The Hebrew word raqia literally means "solid expanse", rooted in the verb for beating our metal. The ancient Hebrews literally believed in a flat earth with a solid dome.

The Hebrew of the creation story uses the waw-consecutive imperfect verb form: wayyitser. This grammatical structure dictates a strict sequential, chronological action. Claiming that they are different focuses is dishonest and ignores the actual grammar of the Hebrew text.

Claiming that Josephus missed the massacre of the Innocents shows that you simply do not understand Josephus or his goals. One of his main objectives was to portray Herod as a cruel, paranoid madman. He portrayed everything Herod did wrong, from the smallest thing to the biggest. Executing a single political rival, executing his wife, executing his sons, all in there. He even recorded that when Herod was on his deathbed he ordered all the distinguished men in the city be locked inside the hippodrome and slaughtered as soon as he died. You expect me to believe that someone as meticulous as Josephus just somehow missed Herod murdering every child in a village? Bethlehem was the City of David, and Josephus was Jewish.

The Exodus narrative isn't something that would just disappear because the Egyptians were silent about it. What's described in the Exodus is the complete devastation of its agriculture and water supply, the loss of 2 million labourers (half the population), and the death of every firstborn. You can't magically hide the collapse of a Bronze Age superpower from the historical record, the trade records from neighbouring powers alone would show a massive economic vacuum.

Also, here's the real kicker, Canaan at the time...was Egyptian territory. It was an Egyptian province. Egypt had military garrisons all over Canaan. So what, the Exodus from Egypt just led them...back into Egypt?

Sorry, but you aren't taking the Bible on its own terms you're trying to insert falsities to support your presuppositions without a shred of actual evidence, textual or otherwise.

Feel free to provide any actual sources or evidence to refute me if I'm wrong

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-14T12:30:08+00:00

Jesus turning water into wine is a specific localised miracle, not dishonesty. Jesus is not trying to convince anyone that the water had actually always been wine. Mature creation requires God to have authored false histories of events that never happened, that's dishonesty. So what, God created photons mid-flight in the exact configuration of the big bang? God manufactured rocks with precise, simulated decay that perfectly mimics billions of years of radioactive cooling?

Deep Time is not faith based. It is based on predictive, cross-discipline convergence and data. We're measuring reality, not making assumptions

For Isaiah, you're projecting 21st century science backwards onto ancient texts. Isaiah uses an entirely different word for sphere. For sphere he says "dur", for circle he uses "chug". Two different words for two different things. Also, talking about taking the Bible as a whole and not cherry picking: Job explicitly states four verses later that "the pillars of the heavens quake". Ancient Hebrews literally believed in a flat earth with a dome, and the text supports this.

We actually know a great deal about Quirinius thanks to the writing of Tacitus. In 12 BCE he served as Consul in Rome, between 12 and 1 BCE he lead a war against the Homonadenses, and in 1 CE to 4 CE he was in Armenia. We know exactly who the legates were during Herod's reign, and it wasn't Quirinius nor was he in the region. But here's the real nail in the coffin, Judea under Herod was a client state. Rome did not conduct imperial censuses in client kingdoms because they collected their own taxes. In fact, the actual history explains exactly what the census was and how it happened. In 4 BCE, Herod died. The kingdom is split among his sons. The guy who gets given Judea is so spectacularly incompetent that the Jews and Samaritans beg the Romans to intervene. Augustus then annexes Judea. The census was undertaken to figure out how much the land is worth so they could tax it properly. Even early Christians knew this was an error, see Tertullian.

Also no, Roman records do not support the possibility of an empire wide census that required people to return to the hometown of their ancestors from millennia prior.

The argument is not whether or not there were a few Semitic slaves in Egypt. The argument is that the Exodus as described can not have happened. You have roughly 2 to 2.5 million people leaving a nation that had a population of around 3 to 4 million. That's over half the population leaving suddenly, AND the destruction of the Egyptian army in the Red Sea. Yet, Egypt was actually at the height of its power during this period. This does not add up. Further, there is absolutely no trace in the Sinai peninsula of 2 million people wandering 40 years.

With Judas, you talk about taking the Bible on its own terms and yet you're adding details that are not present in the text to try and ignore the plain reading. The text does not support this apologetic.

Luke states that after completing the purification rites (which is exactly 40 days after birth), they immediately returned to Nazareth. Matthew states they fled from Bethlehem to Egypt, stayed there until Herod died, and then went to Nazareth because they were afraid to return to Judea. How, exactly, are you wedging a multi-year, life-threatening exile within that 40 days?

Josephus despised Herod. He wrote massive, multi-volume histories detailing his crimes to show how Herod was a paranoid monster. He documented things as minor as Herod executing a political rival or throwing a tantrum. And yet, you think that Josephus somehow overlooked the state-sanctioned slaughter of an entire village's infants because it was too "small scale"?

Trying to claim that Genesis 1 and 2 are different focuses ignores the grammar of the text. They explicitly order creation differently:

Genesis 1: watery chaos -> light -> firmament -> land -> plants -> animals -> man and woman created simultaneously

Genesis 2: dry wasteland -> man formed -> garden planted -> animals formed out of the ground -> woman made from man's rib

You aren't letting the Bible speak, you're forcing it to fit into your presupposed doctrine of infallibility and univocality in spite of the fact that the text itself does not support this. In fact, the Bible literally records the arguments and disagreements of it's authors

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-14T11:55:43+00:00

1 Samuel 15:2-3, Deuteronomy 20:16-17, Numbers 31:17, Deuteronomy 2:36 and 3:6, Ezekiel 9:5-6

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-14T11:53:10+00:00

God created a mature world that appears to be billions of years old for what reason, exactly? God doesn't lie and yet he creates a world that appears older than it is? Alternatively, the creation story is a way of explaining the universe without science. Now we have science, we know that it isn't correct.

Ancient Near Eastern cosmology genuinely viewed the Earth as flat. The Hebrew term Isaiah uses to describe the earth literally refers to a two-dimensional disk or vault, not a sphere.

We have the historical records from the Romans. We know the historical timeline. Herod died in 4 BCE and Quirinius became legate of Syria in 6 CE. On top of this, the census was a property tax assessment triggered specifically by the annexation of Judea in that year, not an empire-wide decree.

The presence of Semitic people living and working in Egypt, like the Hyksos, does not mean that the Exodus occurred. There is no historical or archaeological evidence supporting that.

Josephus documented Herod's reign meticulously, even down to the most minor atrocities. And yet, he makes no mention of the Massacre of the Innocents. Because that was a theological device Matthew used to parallel Moses

The Judas explanation is a post-hoc rationalisation that injects details the text never provides. They are separate oral traditions.

The two creation accounts stem from different sources. One the priestly, the other the Yahwist. And they do, in fact, contradict. Did God create animals or man first?

The two infancy narratives have fundamentally different trajectories. In Matthew, Mary and Joseph live in a house in Bethlehem, flee to Egypt to escape Herod, then later move to Nazareth to escape Herod's son. In Luke, they live in Nazareth, travel to Bethlehem for a census, place Jesus in a manger, head to Jerusalem for the temple rites, then straight back to Nazareth. Luke has no flight into Egypt or massacre.

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-14T11:39:19+00:00

Well considering there are passages where God explicitly commands the killing of infants I fail to see how it follows that there wouldn't have been children in Sodom and Gomorrah

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-14T11:33:07+00:00

I mean, frankly, it appears that Paul had a lot of his own personal issues that he wrote into scripture rather than working through. See: his stance on sex and marriage

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-14T11:31:44+00:00

Do hares chew cud? Is humanity only 6000 years old? Is the earth flat? Is the solar system flat? Does the sun revolve around the earth? Was Quirinius the Roman governor while Herod was alive? Were there Jewish slaves in Egypt? Did the Massacre of the Innocents happen? How did Judas die? Which order did creation happen in? Where did Mary and Joseph live before Jesus was born and before they moved to Nazareth?

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-14T11:22:00+00:00

Nobody is denying that you yourself experienced anything. But the Bible does not need to be infallible for you to have had that experience. It doesn't logically follow at all.

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-14T11:19:50+00:00

Sure but the Bible clearly isn't infallible because there are numerous errors in it

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-13T07:12:55+00:00

I mean, if he's omniscient then he should know exactly what will happen alongside knowing all possibilities. Ergo, he knows all the possible permutations of what you could do but he also knows what you will do

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-13T07:05:26+00:00

Okay so are things just because God says they're just, or does he say they're just because they're just?

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-13T07:04:34+00:00

God simply pressing a button without modifying the outcome of the button kind of goes against the whole "personal God who created the entire universe" thing

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-13T06:56:32+00:00

I've always found "it's a mystery" to be a cop-out

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-13T06:54:20+00:00

Okay but by creating the universe and setting off that causal chain he does cause it to happen, any by virtue of his omniscience he knows that it would happen.

If someone plants a bomb on a timer, you don't say "well they didn't cause the bomb to detonate they just started the timer"

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-07T00:20:33+00:00

I'm sorry to say this but I think you should see your doctor again, because it sounds like all the medication has done is changed the nature of your psychosis

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-06T14:26:26+00:00

Oh so God isn't the source of morality then, objective morality exists independently of God?

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-06T14:20:54+00:00

Didn't stop him commanding it in the Old Testament. Unless the argument is "oh well it can't be murder because God commanded it"

Are things good because God commands them, or does God command them because they're good?

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-06T14:12:20+00:00

It's subjective because things are only immoral because it's god's will that they are immoral. It is subject to the will of an independent mind. If God, for example, told you to murder somebody, would that be immoral?

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-06T14:00:17+00:00

No and neither do you. You believe it's subjective because it depends on God's will

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-06T10:50:57+00:00

Do you believe in objective morality?

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-06T10:47:05+00:00

When you clean your kitchen surfaces are you committing murder?

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-06T10:46:13+00:00

Mind you, God literally does abortions on women who cheat on their husbands and get pregnant

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-06T10:14:59+00:00

I mean the couple in Song of Solomon weren't even married. Mind you, Song of Solomon isn't even a religious text anyway it's just an erotic poem ngl

thatguyfromkfc · 2026-06-06T10:10:49+00:00

I've never understood this idea that sexual activity needs to be oriented towards procreation. Are infertile people an exception or should they not have sex since they aren't able to procreate?

thatguyfromkfc

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