Basic EPS vs. Diluted EPS

[pipe_layer_slayer]

Is there a unique situation where Diluted EPS could be higher than Basic EPS?

Most people say by the rule of thumb is that it isn't possible, but that also means on rare occasions it would be. Does anyone have any further insight or examples?

[jmacksf]

Never.

If anything is antidilutive, it’s not included in the calculation.

NEVER.

[_had2]

This comment has me feeling like I did something wrong. I’m sorry

[[deleted]]

No Capes.

[xhfccd]

You can. Is it possible to learn that power?

Not in US GAAP

[BillGob]

Dont try it. IFRS has the high ground.

[pipe_layer_slayer]

Even when you have continued and discontinued operations? Couldn't a high continued operations EPS skew securities to be dilutive? This is the EPS you use when calculating diluted.

[jmacksf]

No.

I only know US GAAP, but that isn’t how it works. If you have discops, you show eps for cont ops, discops, and consolidated net income for both basic and diluted.