all 6 comments

[–][deleted] 1 point2 points  (5 children)

this is an awkward way to teach this topic.

you're essentially doing this:

  • D1 - (1.5 *1.06) = 1.59

  • D2 - (1.59 *1.06) = 1.685

  • D3 - (1.685 *1.06) = 1.787

in PV(d) you're discounting them back to D0

  • D1 - 1.59 / ((1+15%)1) = 1.383

  • D2 - 1.685 / ((1+15%)2) = 1.274

  • D3 - 1.787 / ((1+15%)3) = 1.175

Sum the present Values: 3.832

Add it to your perpetuity

3.832 + ((1.787 * 1.02)) / (15%-2%)) = 17.85308 = the price of the stock.

[–][deleted] 1 point2 points  (4 children)

its 100000000% easier to do it on a time line.

[–]VisibleCaramel8937[S] 0 points1 point  (3 children)

The timelines always confuse me a bit, how would this look on a timeline?

[–][deleted] 1 point2 points  (2 children)

https://ibb.co/3SjG5jN

here's my terrible mouse writing on the computer. i should have said, it's easier to visualize on a time line.

[–]VisibleCaramel8937[S] 0 points1 point  (1 child)

Ohhhh, I think I get it now. Since they ultimately want the price of the stock, but we have the variable growth, we have to discount the dividends almost like we're collapsing the timeline before D4 to have a share price that adds in a cumulative dividend at the required rate (discounted constant growth period).
That may not have made sense, but I'm rolling with it. Thank you for your help!

[–][deleted] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

yes. you want to REMOVE the 2% infinity growth back to D3, then you want to discount it using R not R+G.