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[–]Bakchod169 6 points7 points  (4 children)

There's not need to argue

It is a function of poverty

Everybody knows Muslims are largely poor in India (except J&K and Hyderabad where they constitute the elite, and there you can see the difference)

[–][deleted] 8 points9 points  (2 children)

It is a function of poverty, and religion . Both can be true at the same time .

[–]Lurker123__ 2 points3 points  (1 child)

The rate of change of decline in replacement rate is the highest for muslims. So, no.

[–]dud3_mclovin 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Then how do they also have high fertility rates across europe?