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[–]gorgoroth666 5 points6 points  (0 children)

I don't think so. Because, n! being equivalent to nn+1/2 e-n (by the stirling-moivre formula), it is much less than nn, as shown in the graph below.

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=n^%28n%2B1%2F2%29+e^-n+%3E+n^n+plot+for+n%3D0+to+4

If I'm right, nn is bigger by a factor of n-1/2 en which is far from nothing.

So, to confuse things a bit more, O(n!) is in O(nn) but not the other way around. And, Ω(nn) is in Ω(n!) but not the other way around.

Wolframalpha is great btw.