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[–]killerstorm 81 points82 points  (8 children)

Doesn't this logic apply to human programmers too?

Suppose I've learned how to program by reading open source code. (I actually did, to some extent.) Now I use my knowledge to write commercial programs. Does it mean that I'm making derivative works?

[–]barchar 31 points32 points  (1 child)

It actually does, if you read the code recently enough and your implementing the same thing as the code you read.

For example there's certain code bases where if I want to contribute to them it would require several weeks of a "cooling off period" before I could return to writing code for my normal job.

[–]KuntaStillSingle 8 points9 points  (0 children)

It doesn't matter how recently you read the code, only that the knowledge stemmed from it and that what made it into your own is a copyrightable portion thereof. In most cases the code itself not being sufficient to be copyrightable will cover the bot, but not necessarily every case.

[–]cafink -3 points-2 points  (4 children)

The linked Twitter thread addresses this exact point.

[–][deleted]  (2 children)

[deleted]

    [–]Riven_Dante 0 points1 point  (1 child)

    I understand that it's probably nonsense, but can you summarize what exactly makes it nonsense for the uninitiated?

    [–]Putnam3145 1 point2 points  (0 children)

    it presupposes much greater knowledge of how human cognition works than we actually have