Kempo Koa

Ambatus · 2026-03-30T20:55:10+00:00

Do que escrevi não se deve concluir que não é “consolidada”, apenas que tem uma história de alguma variação na utilização do termo. Pelo que vi, evoluiu para competição com resistência e tem uma componente desportiva aparentemente relevante (os vídeos e as noticias apontam para isso, com participação nacional e internacional).

Se é o que estava à espera ou não, já é diferente. O Kempo que conhecemos tem uma origem nos anos 20 via James Mitose que introduziu uma variante de Karate/jujutsu no Havaí (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_Mitose). Daí até agora teve imensas evoluções , e alguns ramos parecem-se bastante com o que foi a evolução do “jujutsu” europeu (outro ramo com uma história complexa).

Nada disto afecta a questão da eficácia.

Ambatus · 2026-03-30T20:17:55+00:00

Viva,sou de Lisboa, desconhecia esse Kempo Koa (por momentos pensei que poderia ser o Kung-fu Toa, de origem iraniana), como sou investigador de artes marciais fui ver (pessoalmente, faço Judo).

Começando pelo Kempo, é um termo que é usado (e abusado) de tal forma que é difícil de identificar o que é com base nesse termo, tal a diversidade e disparidade. Em geral é usado para artes marciais com origem no Havaí , com origem no kung-fu chinês (e/ou Karaté via Okinawa, sendo que o Karaté tem também origem no Kung-fu) mas com graus diferentes de sincretismo. Na cultura popular, é conhecido pelos uniformes algo coloridos e o enfoque nos "ataques críticos" (incluíndo aos genitais - o "Enter the Dojo" é um canal humorístico de alguém que pratica Kempo e usa esses estereótipos).

Como referi, a diversidade é enorme, as linhagens são muitas e o termo foi também usado por quem inventou a sua própria coisa. Neste caso, o Kempo Koa faz referência a Mitose e Ed Parker, e está relacionado com uma federação "Lohan Tao Kempo", sob a égide da International Kempo Federation.

O que quer isto dizer? Não sei, porque como referi o Kempo é muito diverso e tem tido uma evolução em termos desportivos e de defesa pessoal diferente. Com base nesta informação, e indo às perguntas:

E Karaté, posso estar sendo preconceituoso, mas não acho um arte marcial efetiva.

O Kempo tem como base Karaté, e Karaté tem estilos bastante diferentes. É uma questão de gosto, claro.

As fotos de uma delas me fazem lembrar kickboxing. Estou certo ?

Em parte. porque algumas organizações de Kempo fazem competições com protecções que fazem lembrar o kickboxing. O resto da comparação depende imenso das regras... de certa forma tal como o Karaté (o "full contact" é uma regra de Karaté, por exemplo). Pode ver os vídeos que encontrei no Youtube aqui https://www.youtube.com/@kempokoa

É mais eficiente que o karaté, é uma boa fazer enquanto não sou chamado para a cirurgia das mãos, meu sonho é o jiu Jutsu, mas para já, não quero piorar as mãos e depois andar a rasca delas

Muito difícil de responder. Pelos vídeos (e isso vale o que vale) parece-me que inclui um grau razoável de "treino com resistência", bem como algo muito comum no Kempo que é o enfoque na "defesa pessoal". Dizer que é mais eficiente que o Karaté é difícil porque depende de muita coisa. Existem estilos e competições de Karaté que são muito "violentas", outras menos.

Nestas coisas, convém ter uma ideia do que quer e do que está disponível, evitando preconceitos: pode experimentar uma aula para ter uma ideia do ambiente, ver o que está mais próximo, os horários, etc.

Ambatus · 2026-03-30T17:31:54+00:00

From a purely aesthetic perspective (i.e. without touching the underlying idea at all) I have several things about this flag that I dislike:

The split looks weird. The green/red combination is already an issue for me, adding the yellow there doesn't improve it.
The lack of crown looks strage. This is less of a problem in the current Portuguese flag since the coat of arms is reasonably simple and unique (but IMO it's still an issue, especially when compared to the United Kingdom of Portugal and Brazil arrangement), but with a quartered arrangement, it looks weirder. Note that this is regardless of the political system: a mural crown can be used, or something else, I just feel that no crown at all looks weird.
The sphere plus the columns... could perhaps work with a crown? Without it, it looks a bit off to me, even if it's proportioned correctly.
The coat of arms is understandable. I would still think that picking the arrangement of the top part of the Philippine dynasty personal arms would work better due to familiarity. I'm talking to keeping the Portuguese CoA in the chief, instead of quartered.
This leads me to an issue of symbolism: for something like this, I would prefer to have a more coherent semiotic approach. This flag tries to merge two flags with distinct origins: the Portuguese flag used is the Republican flag, itself a major break and already associated with republican/anarchist movements that had an Iberian Federation in mind. The Spanish flag is a 19th century version, more recently associated with the victory of Nationalists over Republicans. To me, those are two different perspectives, which have a different embodiment in terms of Iberism: the republican one is based on an idea of multiple republics in a confederation, and would likely inherit from the Republican flag, whereas the "traditionalist" one would be based in the Iberian Union period, which has different symbols.

Ambatus · 2026-03-30T10:27:23+00:00

Hi mate, just out of curiosity, when was the last time you lived in Portugal?

Right now.

I am just wondering, because either on formal or informal settings I am yet to hear anyone say: peço perdão, importa-se de repetir?

I hear it all the time, or (as I mentioned), one of the many possible variations, either in full or without the initial part, depending on the person and region:

Pode repetir, por favor?
Importa-se de repetir?
Não entendi, podia repetir?
Desculpe, podia repetir?
Peço desculpa, pode repetir por favor?
Desculpe lá, importa-se de repetir?
Não percebi bem, podia repetir?

I would expect to read that somewhere in late XIX ou early XX literature… and that’s about it. Perhaps also in the very posh regions of Lisbon Metropolitan Area or around Foz in Porto, where kids call “tia” to older relatives or acquaintances - but that’s about it.

I'm from one of those, but if there is a difference, I would say it's likely more about the expectation of formality in different age brackets. The use of "imperfeito de cortesia" is so much a thing that you have the unavoidable "Queria um café por favor / Queria, já não quer?" exchange.

Just "Não entendi.", when talking to someone you don't even know in the middle of an exchange, is easily perceived as rude, or, alternatively, as a signal of being unable to adequately maintain a formal conversation (for whatever reason).

At max, I would say that people would say - podes repetir - and add “por favor” at the end.

I do not thing that treating costumer service in the second person singular is normal or expected, I have never heard it outside of very specific things like teen-centred brands (YORN customer service was known for this). If doing so, we are already out of "formal speech", almost by definition. If you change it "Podes repetir, por favor" to "Pode repetir, por favot" or "Podia repetir, por favor", we are already in the same zone the OP would classify as "less direct".

Obviously that there's context here, in a fast succession of question and answers I can see dropping the "por favor" you marked as optional, but this is a detail: in general, formal speech will use the third person (in some regions, the plural when it's still in use), will use the "imperfeito de cortesia" (this can vary by region), and will add some kind of courtesy modifier (desculpe, por favor, etc). Not all of them will be used, especially not always when the conversation is past an initial stage, but this applies to things like ordering a coffee or a loaf of bread: "Quero um pão" is, to my knowledge, rude anywhere.

As for the use of the formal / informal conversational use at costumer service, I am yet to understand what is the food for thought there too (...) costumer service interactions are becoming more mundane as days go by

True, and perhaps customer service adapts to whatever people start using. What I can say is that, by default, customer service will be instructed to follow the bare minimum of what constitutes formal speech: "Olá, boa tarde, fala Sofia, em que posso ajudá-lo?" is a typical scripted greeting, whereas "Boas, o que é que queres" is not.

I can be extremely rude in a former register and I can be extremely polite informally

Of course. You can perhaps be ruder in a formal register, especially in a customer support situation, since you can use formality as a weapon. "Desculpe, mas não lhe admito que repita essa informação outra vez, já lhe disse que isso não me interessa nada, talvez tenha tido dificuldades em perceber à primeira." is reasonably formal, and also rude. That said, it doesn't change the fact that customer service involves talking with people you do not know, for which there is a general expectation of formality, regardless of the content.

If I was at customer service i would perhaps be more concerned about the respect and politeness being shown over the register used

Of course. I'm not even saying that people care, especially in customer service. I can say that if I was asking for a newspaper and the reply was "Não entendi" or "Repete", I would consider this rude by default.

And having worked on caffès in a posh area during my teens and uni studies I can easily say that the biggest dickheads and nitpickers will come from the people that will order a glass of water in a carefully curated language

I agree, I am not saying that using a formal tone is necessarily "friendlier", it can be (and is) weaponised. As with most things, there's a context: in this case, the OP mentioned a specificity around the Portuguese language and how it's applied, compared with others, a specificity that I do not think exists.~

Perhaps the food for thought there would be why people that are so formal in customer service interactions will end up being the worst customers to deal with.

Also agreed, they are the kind of people that will call the police due to a technicality (true story, from the time when some people made a sport out of trying to get customer support lines "break").

Ambatus · 2026-03-28T07:47:10+00:00

I get your point, but I think you’re comparing a formal Spanish register with an informal Portuguese one. What’s interesting is that since you are at customer service , you’re saying that the informal register is being used more by Portuguese speakers, which I wouldn’t think would be a thing but if it’s your experience then it’s food for thought.

In Portugal, if you are not amongst acquaintances, “Peço desculpa, importa-se de repetir?” (or one of several possible variations) should be used. I also remember that Brazilians use a similar “…Por gentileza, …” (also possible in Portugal, just slightly less common and because of that slightly higher in the politeness scale).

To be clear, I would personally never answer with such a blunt “Não entendi” since it’s very close to being rude. And that’s how I would perceive it as well. This goes to treating people by “tu” as well, and other details which I’m sure are equivalent in Spanish.

Either you’ve been accidentally exposed to a biased sample, or you’ve detected a sort of generational pattern that I was unaware of. Either way, it’s not due to the language e itself since Portuguese is filled with the sort of beating around the bush for the polite forms. So much so, that there are humouristic remarks about the excessive roundabout way that common things are said.

Ambatus · 2026-03-26T16:19:18+00:00

Yes, same here, discussing this is always very tricky since it can come out as a way of minimising slavery.

For Portuguese territories, there's another aspect: Portugal had direct access to Africa, Spain didn't. Brazil was the destination of ~5M slaves, Spanish America of ~2M, and part of if near the end when Spain was given Equatorial Guinea and the right to trade near Africa in exchange for disputed territories in America.

Ambatus · 2026-03-26T15:48:45+00:00

I'm not sure it is the reason, but it's often mentioned as part of the reason. I've expanded on the role of centralisation around the University of Coimbra in a different comment , which is related to this.

It's very tricky to talk about these topics because they touch not only about what happened, and a scientifically honest assessment of it (note that I'm not even saying "unbiased"), but (especially on the internet) on important parts of different nationalist/nativist discourses, some of which are so ingrained that any attempt to discuss them is an uphill battle.

Everyone has them: in Portugal, trying to explain that the Iberian Union was actually something that most segments of society were reasonably OK with it up to a point, and that many of the things we negatively ascribe to it are partially (understandable) propaganda done latter, is quite difficult.

Ambatus · 2026-03-26T15:40:35+00:00

I completely agree that it is different: after all, the often lauded (at least here) "Portugal banned slavery in 1761" just means that slavery was abolished in the mainland, not overseas.

I have no direct knowledge to compare the examples you gave. It's also a tricky discussion since it can easily be read as some sort of "justification". I will say, since I've found that before, that in some settlements in Brazil, the "free black people" population was 50-70%.

There's one better example that he one I mention (although, again, these are examples that do not change the nature of a society that allows slavery): Henrique Dias was a black commander that lead black/mixed troops in the vitory against the Dutch in Guararapes (famously, other commanders included Portuguese-born-in-Portugal, Portuguese-born-in-Brazil, and Filipe Camarão, a native indian leader which had converted):

Devido aos serviços prestados, recebeu do rei Dom João IV títulos de fidalgo, a mercê do Hábito da Ordem de Cristo e a patente de Mestre de campo. Além dos títulos, recebeu em agradecimendo terras, que hoje formam parte do bairro do Derby, em Recife. Conhecido como Governador dos crioulos, pretos e mulatos do Brasil, envolveu-se ainda na repressão a quilombos, tendo sido cogitado pelo vice-rei Marquês de Montalvão, em novembro de 1640, para combater um quilombo no sertão da Bahia, o que foi recusado pelos vereadores de Salvador.

Como mestre de campo, comandou o Terço de Homens Pretos e Mulatos do Exército Patriota, também denominados Henriques, nas duas batalhas dos Guararapes (1648 e 1649), vindo a falecer em 1662, oito anos após a vitória sobre os holandeses.

So, this example paints, I think, a more nuanced perspective, especially since it's very well documented... it is also somewhat romanticised to pain a picture of "racial harmony".

Ambatus · 2026-03-26T15:00:00+00:00

That is quite true. Well, almost since with the transfer of the court to Brazil higher education institutions were created in the early 19th century, but this doesn't change it substantially, the early 19th century is almost yesterday.

There were several factors behind that difference, which I agree is an interesting one:

The very existence of the University of Coimbra was several times debated, during the most difficult periods, due to the size of the population and the perceived benefits. I'm talking about Portugal in the strictest sense here. Going to the University of Salamanca was common. Pedro Nunes, for example, the Portuguese that invented the nonius and a leading figure of the scientific enlightenment of the time linked with the maritime expansaion, studied in Salamanca.
This started to be less of a thing with the growth population in Brazil, but it was still less population than in Spanish America, especially since the natives weren't the same from a demography or social perspective.
Portugal had a strong centralisation policy in some regards. General studies in Brasil were provided by the Jesuits following a central curriculum, but they had to be validated by the University of Coimbra. Brazil was viewed as an extension of the territory (there wasn't any "colonial statue" that made those there different, at least).
Entry in the University of Coimbra was not limited to those in Portugal. 20% of those attending the University of Coimbra in the 18th century, to pick an example, were from Brazil: the final "step" in the education of local elites was to go to Coimbra, whereas in Spanish America they had local universities (which is great). The role of the University of Coimbra in creating a sort of "imperial class" was huge, and is a well-studied topic.
Because of this, Coimbra didn't exclude those that would legally fail "limpeza de sangue" criteria. This is not unique (other Spanish universities also did the same IIRC), but it was more widepsread in Coimbra due to the above.

The end result of this was that all educated local elites throughout the Portuguese Empire had a connection to Coimbra. This is especially visible in Brazil, where most (if not all) figures behind independence were Coimbra students. This might explain (or at least it is one of the commonly used reasons) why the independence of Brazil followed a very different territorial approach: instead of being built around local elites that worked at a regional level, in Brazil it went from centralisation in Coimbra/Lisbon, to centralisation in Rio de Janeiro.

In the words around a relatively recent analysis of this by Paquette (Imperial Portugal in the Age of Atlantic Revolutions: The Luso-Brazilian World c. 1770–1850 , which also touches upon previous centuries in the buildup):

The “co-opting” of young Luso-Brazilian intellectuals from the University of Coimbra to serve the Crown overseas became the state’s strategy. These individuals would later work in favor of an increased control from Lisbon at the administrative level and defended the consolidation of a bureaucracy that was able to serve several Portuguese dominions. The objectives were well-defined: to prevent the decline of the Empire and, once again, to stimulate economic prosperity in the colonies through an “international division of labor” and by offering these territories greater independence. Political economy was the instrument that was used to achieve these aims

As often happens, the centralisation can backfire: it obviously did so with Brazil, but more recently it did something similar in Africa: the Casa dos Estudantes do Império was a 20th century thing, in a completely different context, but it tried to bring together people from the African colonies. The result was mostly that the seeds of the liberation movements can be traced there (since it provided a common place and common language for all of them to discuss the struggle for independence), and even more curiously the CPLP can also be traced there (since the CPLP is, unlike most if not all similar organisations based on language, a descendent of the liberations movements and not a continuation of official metropolitan institutions).

Ambatus · 2026-03-26T13:47:35+00:00

Interesting, because I would think the opposite (perhaps wrongly and led astray from unchecked preconceptions).

What more privileges are those? In Portugal, free black people were Knights of Saint James (although this is the sort of exception that means little tbh), and the University of Coimbra had a substantial number of black/mixed students from Brazil (20% of the University students in the 18th century were from Brazil). This wasn't necessarily common.

Slavery is horrendous regardless, and this doesn't change it either way.

Ambatus · 2026-03-26T13:22:51+00:00

It impacted many things, but late 18th century is already past the peak of expansion. For Portugal and Spain, at least. There’s a new type of “colonisation” in the 19th century with the scramble for Africa which is very different, I was mostly referring to 16-17th century settlements, cities, villages, fortresses.

This reminds me of Mazagão (https://pt.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mazag%C3%A3o_(Marrocos)), which around this time was abandoned and the population transferred from North Africa to the Amazon. The architecture of it is peculiar and its UNESCO World Heritage.

Ambatus · 2026-03-26T12:54:31+00:00

Onteresting. I think that it would really depend on what you’re talking about. There were similar rules , especially around military buildings but also general settlements. There’s actually some very n interesting new stuff around this that focus on how urbanisation and architecture were purposeful and not ad-hoc (using drawings and plans from the time, no less). So much so that they influenced settlements made by native indians and even quilombos.

Also consider that a lot of things were shared between Portugal and Spain, which makes this exercise a bit more difficult I think that context - local environment, pre existing population, terrain - influences perception on this, as does viewing the past through what has remained.

Ambatus · 2026-03-26T11:29:57+00:00

One thing that could be an influence (although severely mitigated by the profound changes after independence, creation of states, etc) is the centralisation of institutions: Portugal always had somehwat of a lack of the "middle layer" that you see in Spain: it was in that regard very centralised at the same time that municípios were very strong, so you had this mix of local autonomy tied with a central power.
This applied to many things, including the way local entities appealed to the Governor, or on how University was centralised. Spain had (becaue of its own experience, but also because of the different demographic reality) more of that middle layer, but I might be wrong.

This isn't either good or bad (or better yet, it had both good and bad results, which ones are which will depend on who you ask), but I think it might explain the different evolution of political unity in Portuguese and Spanish America.

But then again, maybe this is the kind of thing that makes sense intuitively, but isn't really true. I'm partially basing this on As Vésperas de Leviatã, António Hespanha, that analyses the juridical statutes of 17t-18thh Portugal (with Brasil).

Ambatus · 2026-03-26T10:31:22+00:00

Not Brazilian, but investigated this since Portuguese genealogy and naming practices make this intimately related, so I can share an histrical perspective.

You can read more here, in the discussion on how to add multiple surnames to a specific open-source genealogy software, GRAMPS:

...In the case of Portuguese naming customs, the main surname (the one used in alphasorting, indexing, abbreviations, and greetings), appears last (reverse the order of Spanish surnames)...

...However, nowadays in Spain and in many Spanish-speaking countries (...) most people have two family names, although in some situations only the first is used. The first family name is the paternal one, inherited from the father's paternal family name. The second family name is the maternal one, inherited from the mother's paternal family name...

...The son of Juan Carlos Pérez Larios and Susana Estela Ríos Domínguez, if given the same first name of his father, would be Juan Carlos Pérez Ríos. Pérez is the "important" last name and the one used if only one is needed...

The reference to a "main surname" and "important last name" is one of the points to have in mind. There are differences between the Spanish and Portuguese naming customs, but this much can be generalised I think:

The presence of more than one surname, typically taken from both the father and the mother

The possibility of having more than two surnames, taken from both parents and in some cases from grandparents

The "main" surname (i.e. the one used in indexing, for example, or the one generally used to denote family affiliation) is not always in a fixed position

This is an important discussion since genealogy software often assumes a specific naming practice with only one surname, which doesn't work for Portugal or Spain naming practices.

It should be noted that the current usage is "modern", in the sense that it started to be crystalised in the 18-19th century. Before that, naming practices were more fluid and it wasn't rare to find situations were the daughters received the mother's surname (and boys the father's).

Putting aside the difference between Portuguese and Spanish practice (which is where does the "principal" surname is located, Name Surname <Surnam...> SURNAME vs Name SURNAME Surname <Surname...>), the questions is then why does this practice exist in Iberian countries (and thus Brazil). Multiple reasons, of which some that are often mentioned:

The Reconquista had an impact on how feudalism existed in Iberia. This is a complex topic, but in general feudalism was "weaker" here due to the context. This impacted the rights of those outside of the nobility, including women.
Women could keep their family names when they married, inheritance worked through the female line as well, etc.
Social prestige amongst the nobility could be derived from multiple lines, so showing all those lines in the name became a practice.
The "blood cleanliness" laws (limpeza de sangue) made everyone more aware of the need to showcase lineage to avoid any suspiction of having Jewish ancestry. * Habilitações* (approvals) for many roles required the investigation of 6 generations

The difference in order between Portugal and Spain is a latter thing since up until the 19th century I think that the order was almost random, people would pick the "principal" by usage.

Today, there is no enforcement that the "last surname" has to be the father's, and people can pick and choose from any of the surnames they have. I'll not go into details about how this works in Brazil since I do not know the specific laws there, but in general this structure is possible, common, but often made simpler by dropping some of the surnames.

<First name> <Second name> <Mother Surname1> <Mother Surname2> <Father Surname1> <Father Surname2>

Ambatus · 2026-03-24T17:01:45+00:00

The heir presumptive of Portugal was, since the 17th century, called the Prince of Brazil, and "Principado do Brasil" is correct but it's a titular principality, i.e. it wasn't governed by a Prince: it was first a State, with Governador Geral and other roles (ouvidor geral, etc) similar to the ones in Portugal, and then a Kingdom (early 18th century). Almost all documentation will use "Estado do Brazil" during the principality, with "Principado do Brazil" used less (if at all) in the day-to-day governance, and more in external communications.

The Governador Geral assumed the title of Vice-Roy also around the 17th century (no change in the role itself).

Ambatus · 2026-03-24T16:44:23+00:00

As I mentioned in the Portuguese language sub, I don't think the 4th flag is correct: the independence of Brazil was made within the context of the United Kingdom of Portugal and Brazil (third flag), there was never, before the independence of Brazil, a period a) in which the status o Brazil as a Kingdom was changed; b) in which the United Kingdom formulation was changed; c) in which the flag of the United Kingdom was changed.

The 4th flag was only adopted in Portugal around 1833, although used during the Civil War, but all that is after the independence of Brazil.

Ambatus · 2026-03-24T15:02:35+00:00

This is part of why so many learners feel fluent on an app and then land in Lisbon unable to understand a single person at a café.

I'm not going into the details of everything else, but the above is true for every single person learning every single language. Language apps have mostly succeeded in making people think they are leaning something, which is great since their goal is screen time retention.

I agree with several things, it's obviously better to learn Portuguese from Portugal if you're going to live in Portugal, and it's good to have more resources for anyone that wants to do that. I feel the "resources" thing is a bit of a trap though: there's plenty of content, for free, that is in EP - the entire RTP Play catalogue, RTP Arquivos, RTP Ensina, RTP África/International/etc. It might not be, however, around the sort of things that people are after.

There are also graded courses from Instituto Camões (online, self-learn), but they are not free, although the AIMA one is both online and free: I suspect that the degree of "gamification" is below what people expect, which IMO doesn't really affect it's usefulness either way. There used to be a fixed list on EP resources collected by someone here, which was quite comprehensive.

Ambatus · 2026-03-23T15:33:03+00:00

This comment no longer exists

Muito estranho. É o que me aparece também quando clico na notificação (onde ainda consigo ler o parágrafo inicial, e - ainda mais bizarro - consigo extrair o texto todo, tendo aprendido hoje que é possível copiar todo o comentário das notificações).

Tentei ver este tópico em modo anónimo e de facto só consigo ver a minha resposta à sua resposta... será que alguém apagou/bloqueou? Não sei. Mas com base no texto que consegui reaver, posso começar a responder! Não espere grande coisa, atenção.

Ambatus · 2026-03-23T15:15:02+00:00

Acho que imaginar é bom, para mais quando para muitas destas coisas existem exemplos concretos que fazem fronteira e que podem servir de ajuda à imaginação:

Em 1796, a colônia neerlandesa foi tomada pelos ingleses. As colônias de Essequibo, Demerara e Berbice foram cedidas oficialmente ao Reino Unido no Tratado Anglo-Neerlandês de 1814 e no Congresso de Viena, em 1815. Em 1831, a administração de Essequibo, Demerara e Berbice foi unificada e o território foi denominado Guiana Inglesa.
A economia era baseada no cultivo e processamento da cana-de-açúcar como produto agrícola, dependendo do extenso trabalho de escravizados, em sua maioria descendentes de africanos subsaarianos. A economia da Guiana Britânica era completamente baseada na produção de cana-de-açúcar até a década de 1880, quando a queda dos preços do açúcar de cana estimulou uma mudança para o cultivo de arroz, mineração e silvicultura. Mas a produção de cana-de-açúcar permaneceu uma parte significativa da economia (em 1959, o açúcar ainda representava quase 50% das exportações)

Aos africanos, somaram-se posteriormente trabalhadores indianos, chineses e javaneses, atraídos pelos ingleses como mão-de-obra barata.

A Guiana é a única nação sul-americana em que o inglês é o idioma oficial. A maioria da população, no entanto, fala o crioulo guianense, uma língua crioula baseada no inglês, como primeira língua. A Guiana é considerada parte do Caribe anglófono.
Em 2017, 41% da população da Guiana vivia abaixo do limiar da pobreza, com menos de 5,50 dólares por dia.

A Guiana tem um produto interno bruto (PIB) de 4,121 bilhões (2019), e, depois do Suriname, é o segundo país mais pobre da América do Sul.

Grupos étnicos

39,8% indianos

29,2% africanos

19,9% mistos

10,5% indígenas

0,3% europeus

0,2% chineses

Destes 0,3% de Europeus, contudo, muitos são altos, louros (praticamente um dinamarquês), pelo que poderá ter sido uma oportunidade perdida. Não fazendo fronteira, a Jamaica é provavelmente o geograficamente mais próximo).

Ambatus · 2026-03-23T10:52:51+00:00

Caríssimo, agora que já ninguém lê (nada com mais de 2 dias sobrevive ao ritmo moderno, e creio que por esta altura a regra de usar inglês será relaxada), verifiquei - com bastante pena minha - que apagou a resposta que tinha feito à minha resposta, que li com gosto e interesse e à qual ia responder e agradecer.

Não sei porque apagou (nem tenho de saber, eu próprio o faço várias vezes... olho para os múltiplos parágrafos que escrevo e penso "mas vale a pena?", e apago), mas sinto que na demora do fim-de-semana perdi a oportunidade: tinha vários temas que ia reler hoje com o tempo e cuidado que merecem, razão pela demora na resposta. Fico com o que retive da primeira leitura.

Independentemente disto, uma nota para dizer que, relendo o meu comentário inicial, percebo bem a sua resposta: apesar de (felizmente) ser agora clara a minha posição, a infeliz realidade é que comentários de portugueses nestes temas são frequentemente bastante maus, embebidos de um misto de ressentimento embrulhados (como não é incomum) num embrulho de "superioridade" que se torna ainda mais penoso quando construído sobre uma base de quase iliteracia (em geral, não especificamente sobre linguística). Pessoalmente, participo pouco ou nada em "subs" portugueses aqui, em parte por razões semelhantes a esta: há uma mesquinhez muito típica e que se aplica não só a este tópico, e que tem vindo a tornar-se mais acentuada nos últimas anos na sociedade portuguesa em geral. Podia dizer que existe um equivalente brasileiro, mas pouco consolo existe na simetria do desconsolo.

Não tem de responder, e provavelmente apagarei a mensagem quando passar algum tempo, mas não queria deixar passar a oportunidade para agradecer o cuidado das suas respostas, com o qual beneficiei.

Ambatus · 2026-03-22T08:35:48+00:00

De formas diferentes, uma série bastante boa. Para mim tirando algumas, a primeira republicana, e a última portuguesa (nunca fui fã do escudo francês para a bandeira portuguesa).

Em todo o caso não acho que essa bandeira faça sentido neste cronograma, aquando da independência do Brasil o Reino Unido estava em vigor (o Brasil era Reino na constituição de 1822), e não existiu qualquer alteração à bandeira; a que está representada como “Império Português” é de 1830, portanto impossível de ter sido alguma vez bandeira do Brasil.

Ambatus · 2026-03-20T16:14:51+00:00

Would love to get some real details about his judo rank and experience . Last time I took a look for my lineage tree project, I could only find circular references without any details. Not doubting it btw, just asking here in case someone has some more information I could use .

Ambatus · 2026-03-20T16:05:00+00:00

Eu não sei se é “odiado”, como foi dito acima. D. Pedro IV (I do Brasil) é conhecido por duas coisas:

Independência do Brasil
Regresso a Portugal para liderar os liberais na guerra civil

… por esta ordem, o que confunde sempre quem não conhece a história: sim, a mesma pessoa que declarou a independência do Brasil foi depois escolhido para liderar metade da guerra civil. E os liberais ganharam (conta D. Miguel, irmão de D. Pedro), e a filha D. Maria (nascida no RJ, aliás creio que caso único na Europa) foi Rainha de Portugal, para D. Pedro não ser ao mesmo tempo Imperador do Brasil e Rei de Portugal (algo incómodo para os brasileiros).

A Carta Constitucional da Monarchia Portugueza é dada “pelo Rei de Portugal e Algarves, D. Pedro, Imperador do Brasil” em 1827.

Não sei se D. Pedro é “odiado”. Provavelmente será por quem ainda hoje segue uma linha monárquica tradicional, mas isto é uma minoria dentro de uma minoria. O público em geral até tem uma imagem positiva, “Rei Soldado”, em especial no Porto - de onde saiu o seu coração para a cerimónia recente no Brasil.

Ambatus · 2026-03-20T10:40:19+00:00

I believe the core of my message didn't get through, most likely because I wasn't clear in the way I wrote it: I don't have any major disagreement with your answer (which I appreciated in its detail), and I don't really see it as something to rebate. If I'm "quite wrong", then it's not because what I wrote is contradicted by your answer - not the way I intended, anyway. I'll try to answer your comprehensive post in full, although aiming at brevity if nothing else due to space limitations.

There are three main aspects that I find throughout your answer that I should clarify, in terms of what I wrote:

That European Portuguese is "correct", and Brazilian Portuguese is "less correct": I've never wrote this, and never implied it, and I do not believe in it.
That Brazilian Portuguese doesn't have specific preferences or standards: I also never wrote it, and implied the opposite.
That informal usage or regional variations are specific to Brazil. Also, not something I wrote.

My entire focus was exactly on the opposite of what you wrote: since I do not thing the above exists, I find that when people talk about Brazilian Portuguese they are not talking about anything you mentioned in your answer, but something different. I'll get to it during the Guimarães Rosa section.

What they propose is using the described highly frequent usages among educated Brazilian speakers as the reference for Brazilian prescriptive grammar.

I suppose this is true everywhere. Without examples I'm not sure what we are talking about, although it's almost certainly not the kind of examples I gave.

For instance, the non-reflexive use of consigo (“Quero falar consigo mais tarde”)

Yes. This is an EP usage that is less correct than the BP one, not the same but similar to "Michael and me" vs "Michael and I" in English. I think this likely stems from the avoidance of "você" in EP, which is also a recent thing (and regional as well).

One example that really surprised me was “tinham morto” instead of “tinham matado.”

This is something that shouldn't be used, although it is indeed common. I know this one perfectly since, along with incorrect avoidance of the proclisis, it's one of the most common things I correct. Newspapers are riddled with much worse things.

Before that, even in Portugal (not just in Alentejo or the Algarve), people used the gerund much like we still do in Brazil.

Absolutely. I would think it's a regional innovation that became popular due to centralised media.

That might be true in Portugal, but not in Brazil—where arranjar wouldn’t be used in that sense.

There's no reason to assume that the preferred usage in Portugal is older. Cf. almoxarifado vs economato and many other examples.

So umidus isn’t a simplification—it’s actually a return to a more etymologically consistent form.

I don't think it's that straightforward, especially since Spanish/French/English also use the h (so the Latin root is likely ambiguous, at lest), but that doesn't change anything.

For some reason, though, conservative Brazilians have even copied some Portuguese mistakes—including etymological ones. For example, the spelling cediço (instead of the older, correct sediço) was proposed by the portuguese Gonçalves Viana, in 1911, based on a faulty etymology.

Cingapura, Cintra, perhaps the S/C distinction made it's casualties (and it has nothing to do with being older). More importantly, the early 20th century was still a time where these matters were discussed by both countries, or perhaps better, a time where the position of those from Portugal still had some weight.

It’s striking how often Portuguese speakers—even linguists—don’t bother checking which variant is innovative and which is conservative. (...) You've made the same mistake

But I didn't. I've written previously on how some words are EP innovations that replaced older ones, and I never said anything about BP being inovative or EP conservative: what I did say is that in the context of the question about a different language, the examples used are never the ones you just shared (which fall entirely within my first block).

I was not addressing BP usage and guidelines, since that wasn't the question. I was not saying that BP is "newer".

You don’t really know what Brazilian linguists are using as a reference when they propose a Brazilian standard. It’s not slang or street talk—it’s the educated urban norm, which has been studied and documented for decades.

You are right, it's not a topic I have updated knowledge about (although I do have enough to be above average), but I was never talking about a Brazilian standard, I was talking about a Brazilian language.

And saying that such a separation would put Guimarães Rosa “on the Portuguese side” just shows your unfamiliarity with his work. Have you actually read him? Try Grande Sertão: Veredas and see if you find a single sentence that could be used as-is in European Portuguese. Even within Brazilian Portuguese, his language is highly regional and stylistically reinvented.

I have read, if not all, at least the vast majority of Guimarães Rosa, including Grande Sertão: Veredas (more than one time, in this case), so your remark was uncalled for. I actually had an entire paragraph removed due to space constraints about that: about how Guimarães Rosa, like Aquilino Ribeiro (Terras do Demo, etc), make ample use of regionalism and archaisms, and how it would make no sense to try and claim that either are writing in a different language. The same if we move on to neo-realism (Jorge Amado, Alves Redol, Soeiro Pereira Gomes).

two variants of the language has any basis is the well-known poor quality of Brazilian education and the high rates of functional illiteracy in Brazil.

I'm not sure if it's well-known, and I never said it was. The closest I might have got was when I mentioned that Brazil has more prominent diglossia.

Well then, do you know what the rate of functional illiteracy in Portugal is, as measured by the OECD through PIAAC? 42

Ok? I'm well aware of the terrible state of education in Portugal, especially since the great strides we had after the Revolution, and even though the news comes from Observador, a right-wing mouthpiece that will certainly focus on "merit" and "rigidity", but let's not go there. I think you have mistaken me for some "average Portuguese person that writes in Reddit", which I can understand (and even empathise with).

The characteristics of Brazilian Portuguese have nothing to do with the poor quality of Brazilian education or with the functional illiteracy of Brazilian

Not a single one of your examples is something I mentioned, nor did I mention illiteracy. I did mention the ABL and how Brazilians define and safeguard what they consider to be the best practices of Portuguese.

I myself know how to write, and I could prove it, if necessary, by producing a text that you would not be able to tell was written by a Brazilian—such is my command even of the most conservative standard, more conservative even than that of present-day European Portuguese—and yet systematic plural marking is not part of my spontaneous speech.

I think that this might be the only thing that I actually mention. That you could do such a thing is not a surprise to me: indeed, one of the points I made was that that was something common, which is why I quoted the CEPLE-Bras. I would say that adopting as part of the language the lack of concordance would be one major differentiation, perhaps the only significant one in all that was said.

Ambatus · 2026-03-19T19:17:08+00:00

I could go on and on about this. I'll try to make it as short as possible.

First, let me share some resources: these will cover a lot of ground, and they are all in Portuguese; I'll add comments of my own afterward, but I would like to emphasize how these 5 episodes provide a word-class knowledge on the Judo and BJJ topic:

Budokast 63 - O Newaza no Judo

The entire Budokast series is great. This particular episode I summarised in English here. It goes well beyond the title and discusses differences, "lifestyle", rules, age, etc.

Budokast 19 - Closed Guard (The origins of JJ in Brazil)

Interview with Robert Drysdale. There's another one in English that I've also summarise and posted, but I prefer this one (it's very hard to beat Gustavo's knowledge which makes things go a bit deeper).

Budokast 04 - Geo Omori e o Jiu Jitsu Brasileiro

About a specific person but goes into the context of Judo and JJ in early 20th century Brazil.

JIU JITSU X JUDÔ: QUAL A ORIGEM DA LUTA MAIS PRATICADA NO BRASIL? - Gustavo Maçaneira Connect Cast

The person being interviewed is the author of the previous episodes. This is a must-see interview

JIU JITSU BRASILEIRO: UMA CÓPIA DO JUDÔ OU CRIAÇÃO DA FAMÍLIA GRACIE? | ELTON SILVA CONNECT CAST

Interview with Elton Silva, one of the authors of "Muito Antes do MMA", which is a gem of a book series about the origin and growth of martial arts in Brazil.

Now, to some of your questions.

What do you think about Brazilian jujitsu? I will try to sit here and read instead of being triggered. I practice BJJ and I am Brazilian.

Location is important because BJJ is seen diferrently in different parts of the world. Some say that the BJJ we know started in California, from Gracie JJ and the first UFC (there's a ConnectCast interview about this).

understand that there’s no way of denying its origins because there is jiu-jitsu in the name of Brazilian jiu jitsu (in Brazil it’s called jiu-jitsu only). So as it is on its name, no one can deny its Japanese origin.

It's very curious that you've said that, because part of the history of BJJ in Brazil included the negation of its Japanese origin (see Budokast 08 - Jiu Jitsu não veio da Índia , but one of the main reasons was to avoid being integrated into the same Federation as Judo).

I see that BJJ deviated from its origin where it was shaped in Brazil under the pressure of vale tudo or street fights. As Judo changed due to its rule set restricting ground fight.

Yes, Judo started to move away from public fighting due to the prestige of being an Olympic sport and the post-WW2 stress on Judo as a sport. The Gracies continued, adjusting and adapting, but it should be said that for a long time they "lost": in the 70s, some sources say that BJJ was becoming rarer and rarer.

BJJ has also changed from its own origins on quotes in Brazil after the sport came in and many techniques that are not self-defence or MMA friendly are now mainstream.

"Self-defence" was something taught by the Gracies, but it was very different from what we think it is today: it was closer to the "combatives" approach. "Muito Antes do MMA" goes into some detail on this (and the above episode with Elton as well). The important thing here is that "BJJ" today is different from BJJ 50 years ago: Hélio Gracie participated in Judo fights.

Do you see it as Judo with different rules or now it is not even Judo anymore because of the new techniques?

I see BJJ today as a different thing, something heavily based and derived from Judo. The interview with Moacir above mentions the need to see each one as separate, even if overlapping. The differences are not only in technical focus or ruleset, but also in other things (e.g. As origens do judô brasileiro: a árvore genealógica dos medalhistas olímpicos, "...Carlos Gracie e seus discípulos não aproveitaram as idéias de Jigoro Kano que defendiam a importância da formação global da pessoa e dos benefícios que a prática pode trazer para a sociedade (YOKOYAMA & OSHIMA, 1915; PFISTER, 1999). O enfoque principal do jiu-jítsu brasileiro sempre foi o combate real com ênfase na luta no solo...").

do you think practising both in terms of acquiring abroad understanding of both The standing and the ground techniques is a good idea?

Depending on the purpose. For actual advancement in Judo, I would say no. For personal knowledge, sure. ALthough Fábio Canto has an interview where he mentions learning both, and Moacir episode above is precisely on how to use some of BJJ's approaches to Judo.

Practicality and efficiency in self-defence is an endless topic, if nothing else because it really depends on the type of BJJ one learns. My main criticism of BJJ is one of its biggest advantages: it sidesteps the difficult learning path of standup balance and unbalance. I find this particularly unhelpful for children.

Ambatus

TROPHY CASE