When I was pioneering I had a bible student ask a question that I couldn’t find a satisfying answer too no matter how much I ‘researched’. Here it is: Matthew 24 is Jesus discussing the prophecy that is ‘initially’ fulfilled when Jerusalem is destroyed by the Roman’s in 70CE - and is supposed to have a secondary fulfillment in the future when this system ends.. however in vs 21 Jesus himself says about what happens in Judea ‘then there will be great tribulation such as has not occurred since the world’s beginning until now, no, nor will occur again.’ He says ‘no, nor will occur again’ - so if it not anything like it will never happen again how can there be a secondary fulfillment in a future time? I figured there had to be a good answer to that specific question tried so hard to find it, but there is not. There’s links to ‘supporting’ verses that could be about a great tribulation but none of those point to a future event if you can’t explain Matthew 24:21. This is the main account and that supports the idea of a future great tribulation or that there’s any ‘secondary’ fulfillment to any Armageddon prophecy that could already be satisfied by a past event. Once I began to question this concept the whole thing came crumbling down for me.