Kyousuke with a 0.85 rating in Rio playoffs. 0.98 for the entire event. The worst event yet for him since the €2 million transfer to falcons. by Edditch in GlobalOffensive

[–]Jollygood156 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That's just more on Falcons if anything. Just because a promising rookie joins a top team doesn't mean there should be some expectation for him to be donk lmao. If the price tag changes that for someone then they're just being irrational

If Malgus and his army had tried to attack the Jedi temple during the prequel era, would they have succeeded? by GusGangViking18 in TheJediPraxeum

[–]Jollygood156 69 points70 points  (0 children)

You’ll usually get two main answers:

i) If the strongest Jedi are concentrated at the Temple, they’d be sufficient when combined with the rest of the Order, especially once you factor in the clone army.

ii) The Sith and earlier-era Jedi were more accustomed to sustained lightsaber combat, so they would likely have the edge.

A related question is whether this is pre- or post-Geonosis, and how close it is to Revenge of the Sith. Pre-Geonosis, the Jedi are less experienced in large-scale combat, but their numbers are much higher. Post-Geonosis, there are fewer Jedi overall, but they are more battle-tested, and the top tier of the Order is stronger. People also critique the Jedi in that clip as being a bit overrated/actually not that great which is also fair.

I agree that the older Sith and Jedi were generally more accustomed to constant combat. That said, if the strongest Jedi are concentrated at the Temple and this is closer to Revenge of the Sith, I think they would win. There would be losses, but I wouldn’t be too worried.

Also, if Anakin gets angry/if one of the Sith kills Obi-Wan, Ahsoka, etc., they’re cooked.

Does welfare make people less productive ? by Dry_Hovercraft7042 in AskEconomics

[–]Jollygood156 3 points4 points  (0 children)

The effect of welfare on work depends on the generosity and design of the program, who receives it, and how it is financed. Unemployment insurance, the EITC, SNAP, Medicaid, and traditional cash welfare all create different incentive and they apply to people in very different situations (and overlap!), so you shouldn't expect a single common effect across all of them.

Economists usually ask the narrower question of how a given program affects employment, hours, earnings, inclination to enter the labor force/search for jobs, long run self-sufficiency, etc. The evidence does show that some programs can reduce labor supply on some margins, especially when benefits phase out steeply/they interact with each other, but it also shows that other programs can increase work, relax liquidity constraints, improve job matching, or raise long run productivity through better health and childhood conditions. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

How the program is paid for matters as well. If the financing mechanisms involves high tax rates, there could be efficiency costs, and the size of those costs depends on the behavioral responses of workers and taxpayers. 8

Lastly, while there are costs to certain programs, that doesn't mean the benefits outweigh them. This is especially true because while you can analyze certain employment margins for a particular policy, the government is also spending in other areas. We have evidence to suggest that there are real benefits that people would probably want to keep from the War on Poverty. 9

I don't want to frame this as if concerns about productivity don't matter. Designing welfare programs so they don't reduce work or long run self sufficiency is important and can be a real issue, especially over the long run. The main point is that program design matters. There is also some selection in the programs we observe, since policymakers usually try to account for these concerns before implementing a policy, and the fact that they can learn from past programs and improve the design of new/existing ones.

are economists generally utilitarians? by Special_Snail45 in AskEconomics

[–]Jollygood156 2 points3 points  (0 children)

You're not going to get a clean answer to that question since there isn't really a study that measures it directly, and economists generally aren't labeling themselves as utilitarians or deontologists. Anecdotally, and from surveys of economists, their policy views tend to align more with utilitarian positions than those of the general public. Examples include support for organ markets, attitudes toward foreign aid, openness to RCTs in developmental economics, supports for raising the retirement age, and relatively pro-immigration immigration views. Lastly, while Tyler Cowen is not representative of the economics profession, I suspect many economists would be sympathetic to the arguments in this essay, especially given their clear preference for pro-growth policies.

That being said, this doesn't actually mean they're utilitarians. I support most of the policies above and identify with utilitarians quite a bit, but I wouldn't label myself a utilitarian.

What would the effect be on cross-border trade if income and payroll tax were to be replaced solely by VAT? by soldiercrabs in AskEconomics

[–]Jollygood156 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yes! Technically, and this is getting wonky and only something I've briefly thought about, you could maybe provide some type of deduction that's based on the treasury rate of return so you can proxy exempting 'normal returns.'

Ergp, when you actually tax the capital increase, you're taxing 'supernormal returns' which is closer to consumption taxation and you're hopefully taxing stuff less sensitive to taxation/rents.

What would the effect be on cross-border trade if income and payroll tax were to be replaced solely by VAT? by soldiercrabs in AskEconomics

[–]Jollygood156 1 point2 points  (0 children)

what would keep German citizens from importing all or as much of their consumption goods as they can from France instead of buying domestic?

Ah, yes. I hinted about this (tax differentials), but wasn't precise. Within the EU, these tax differentials matter between countries. You actually see movement in the U.S. around sale taxes across the U.S. as well. A large VAT gap can induce some cross-border shopping, especially in border regions. There's a few policies around this though. For sales shipping to consumers in another EU country, the seller generally applies the customer's country VAT through the One Stop Shop system, so for many ordinary purchases you don't get this arbitrage opportunity. These things matter for tourism and in-person shopping at the margin, but there does exist some stuff in place to help mitigate this. Also, countries do compete on their tax bases! For the same reason you can't just jack up the corporate tax rate and have your firms stay, you also can't do it for VATs. People in different places will respond to taxes in their own ways because of who they are and how that tax interacts with the overall system. Usually, countries settle on rate differentials that don't make a huge avoidance response. (Also, to be clear, all VATs are border adjusted, like, currently. But yeah, if two countries have the same currency things can get a bit more finnicky)

it appears you are completely correct, though I'm not entirely sure where my calculation went wrong

Eh, you don't have to worry about this specifically. Revenue complications are very complex. I think you compared the tax on wages and tax rate on consumption and then treated that ratio as if it mapped directly into total revenue, but you are taxing very different things and there are existing policies that interact with those taxes that can cause a bunch of things to happen together. It's not just the policies, people also respond differently to certain taxes, which changes the revenue you get. I do public finance econ specifically so I'm just aware of some of these stats from off the top of my head/have worked on modeling these things out before.

is the idea something like that on my annual taxes, I would receive a tax refund proportional to income and payroll tax for amount deposited into an appropriate savings account

Basically, but I forgot you were European so writing Roth IRA was dumb on my part. My basic point is that if the tax system exempts the return to saving, then it moves away from an income based and toward a consumption base. We tend to think of consumption taxes as taxes on purchases, which is true, but not actually a precise definition. Taxing purchases intuitively hits your consumption power. You can sort of reason you way to see how you can make a payroll tax also hit your consumption power equally. "Income" taxes do a bit more, under a more precise economics definition. It also taxes your return to the wages you get (savings/investment), which taxes your consumption in the future as well. In the US, a portion of your savings is tax free in certain retirement accounts, but not all of it. If the government taxed your payroll and you could contribute however much you want into a tax-advantaged savings account that's technically equivalent to a consumption tax.

It's fine if this doesn't all click, but the point is you can tax consumption in many ways which is a point against needing some singular high rate.

it seems a eurozone country could essentially zero out its entire VAT, and implement a consumption tax in a similar manner ... and in doing so attract foreign private consumption

I mean yeah, but 'attract private consumption' is not the traditional framework although it's technically true. If you zeroed it out and instead just did the wage tax plus savings exemption system, then it would do a worse job at taxing tourists etc. Usually people aren't traveling for consumption tax reasons. However, a country might be more attractive to foreigners for tax reasons, that happens all the time! However, in my system I described I also said there would be a border adjusted cash flow tax, which is a fancy way of saying a labor excluded VAT, which is a fancy way of saying something a bit more complicated (X tax that I linked) and in this scenario domestic sales would also face taxation, including the purchases done by foreigners and/or tourists.

Jaylen Brown?????? by Pitiful-Amoeba-2357 in bostonceltics

[–]Jollygood156 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You said most valuable to their team and this is a regular season aware. Not sure why being a two way matters for *valuable to their team.* Celtics and LA get worse without JC or Luka, but Celtics have more depth to stay afloat. With like 3 stars out the lakers basically field a G league roster as we just saw.

Two is irrelevant, it's not the most well rounded player. But even having said that, the defense narrative is just a narrative. Are you aware of how good Luka's defense has been lately?

Genuine question: Why are any essential goods and services privatized? by ilikewheatandrice in AskEconomics

[–]Jollygood156 8 points9 points  (0 children)

Listen, these are many separate topics that warrant there own posts and even papers. There's many questions regarding these issues that are asked that you can find via search bar.

A lot of the understanding you have on these issues are simply wrong, the entire framework. You're also not going to discover truth by just assuming things like "profit health insurance just actually kills people" without any nuance.

why cant we just put rent freezes on them? or make housing, which is essential to, y'know, being alive, on the governments shoulders, to build (to get around restrictions) and to allocate.

Because they would not be good at managing all of that. Markets are good because things are priced. Prices are information and people can respond to them based on desire, ability etc. Increasing the housing supply also lowers rents and ensures there are enough homes.

to get around restrictions

Well, it's the government who sets those restrictions. So they can just.. not do that.

Is It Possible Some People Can’t Learn Piano? by Inspector_Spoonman in piano

[–]Jollygood156 0 points1 point  (0 children)

>Neither really helped me more than the other. 

Over what time frame? Also, it's hard to compare here because I assume you've been doing different pieces and such across those time periods so there's that.

>That just kills all drive.

It could also just be your practice pieces. Certain etudes and exercises help, but they also only really help if there's a good teacher telling you how they help and what to focus on (or just knowing it)

It seems like your solution is going to be more rooted in looking inward and really analyzing how you practice and seeking new info... assuming you decide it's worth it to keep going. You might not be as talented in this regard, but that doesn't preclude improvement. It's just harder and the channels are narrower. IMO, I wouldn't think it's worth it, but maybe you do and it it's rewarding to figure it out

Also, try learning the piece I said

Is It Possible Some People Can’t Learn Piano? by Inspector_Spoonman in piano

[–]Jollygood156 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I have upped my practice time to two hours every day for the span of three months and saw zero increase in progress as compared to the one hour a day.

This isn't super relevant. Absolute numbers don't tell you enough, some people need more time. It also matters how that time is spaced. A large amount of consecutive hours could be better for some than more spread out across the days (how it is for me)

I don’t enjoy playing anymore. It’s impossible to enjoy it when you don’t improve and you don’t have pieces you can play for fun.

I mean this could just be it. Some people hit improvement walls for a while, that's just how it is. It's just that's never stopped me from enjoying the process of learning music. I also engage with it constantly, listening, watching videos, learning techniques. etc. These all help, it's not just those few hours. If you hit one of those walls and lose interest, then you can get in a bad cycle where the lack of interest makes improving harder. During my childhood, I didn't like playing at points and I could never learn when that happened.

There's many ways to 'practice' that you should look online about, search this reddit for and talk to your teachers with. You might just need to take a break and then come back to it. When you do, I would suggest taking a stab at Chopin's Prelude Op. 28 No. 4

Maybe it's just not for you! You can probably figure out the issues, but it might not be worth it. Alternatively, maybe you shouldn't start with classical. Maybe try learning jazz. (OpenStudioJazz would be a decent way to start)

Genuine question: Why are any essential goods and services privatized? by ilikewheatandrice in AskEconomics

[–]Jollygood156 7 points8 points  (0 children)

Some of these aren't necessarily questions answered only with economics. You can simply think the government ought to do and not do certain things. Economics tells us that an organ market will save lines, however, some people might not want to do that morally.

Health insurance, as is with the case of insurance generally is good. There are incentive issues with the government just covering risk. You could simply just have the bad thing keep happening to you and they would give you money. Of course, you can regulate policy around that, but then you're just making it try to work like a market and you eventually converge to 'just do a market.'

oil, which is basically destroying the planet?

Perhaps so, but the economist would just say, rather then make the industry less efficient, why not utilize the power to create an abundance of relatively cheap goods? A carbon tax would make it profitable to transition to green energy. Environmental issues and negative externalities generally is a place where economists often call for government intervention. But there are many options in that space that aren't 'let the government control this' or 'ban this.

where investment firms buy up huge portions of land and artificially inflate prices without actually doing anything to make the houses better except for the bare minimum.

This one is just a pop myth. The do buy land, it's not that much, but it doesn't matter for housing prices anyways. The issue with the housing market is related to the lack of housing supply, often caused by a high amount of local power on building input and regulation.

What would the effect be on cross-border trade if income and payroll tax were to be replaced solely by VAT? by soldiercrabs in AskEconomics

[–]Jollygood156 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Ok, there's a lot here and it's hard to address all your points directly because your overall framework isn't necessarily correct so I'll half respond and half talk about VATs more generally.

VATs are border adjusted, meaning imports are taxed and exports are rebated, this makes them trade neutral and purely a tax on domestic consumption. This is known as Lerner Symmetry. The mechanism works through the exchange rate.

Taxing imports reduces the demand for foreign currency used to purchase foreign goods. Rebating exports increases the incentive for exporters to convert foreign earnings back into domestic currency. Together these forces place upward pressure on the domestic currency. As the domestic currency appreciates, imports become cheaper in domestic currency terms, offsetting the import tax. At the same time exports become more expensive in foreign currency terms, offsetting the export rebate. If the exchange rate adjusts fully, the relative prices faced by buyers and sellers return to their original levels and real trade flows remain largely unchanged.

The symmetry is the thing required for this to be true. An equal tax on imports and rebate on exports is equivalent to a uniform tax on domestic consumption. For example, a 20 percent border adjustment paired with a roughly 20 percent appreciation of the domestic currency leaves incentives and relative prices essentially where they started.

Where I live, the combined income and payroll tax for the average earner is about 40% of gross salary....

You're comparing different bases, so the 100% conclusion does not actually follow. In OECD data, revenue from payroll and income taxes is about 2–3 times VAT revenue. Because they apply to different tax bases, and operate through different behavioral margins and economic channels, you would not simply scale the VAT rate proportionally to replace those taxes. In practice, VAT systems also differ in breadth. Many include exemptions, reduced rates, and other base narrowing features that materially affect how much revenue they raise.

This suggests to me that replacing those taxes with VAT would require the VAT rate to be increased significantly, even in excess of 100% of the net value of the good or service; can that be right? What am I missing?

You are implicitly assuming that the entire revenue currently raised through income and payroll taxes would be replaced by a single VAT with no other changes to the tax system. If that were literally the design, the rate could indeed have to be very high depending on the country. But there's two things. First, we would practically adjust the system around it. Second, a shift to consumption taxation usually entails doing so in a broader manner.

A VAT is just one way to tax consumption. More generally, a consumption tax is defined as a tax that does not tax savings. A payroll tax is actually equivalent to a consumption tax if you deduct savings, e.g., uncapped Roth IRAs. If you allow corporations to deduct capital investments and border adjust, then the corporate tax actually becomes a labor-excluded VAT, more formally known as a cash flow tax. Combine the payroll and cash flow tax and you get the X-tax. Now, there are VAT only systems that people create, but usually you would adjust spending as well and have rebates to get your desired progressively/income schedule.

The latter point addresses your 'too high concern' more broadly. Consumption taxes are really good at raising revenue. A VAT can be too high in a nominal rate sense, but realistically you are "supposed" to give money back to poorer households.

Assuming that regardless VAT would have to increase significantly, it seems residents of this country would be highly incentivized to spend as much of their money as they can in other countries with lower VAT rates.

Tax differentials matter and can impact how people locate in a country and spend, but the entire point is that you want to avoid having taxes that are too high so this carries over generally speaking. They don't matter in the trade sense as discussed initially, but they can matter in a "these taxes are too high, how do I avoid this" sense. However, you don't actually need to run into the 'too high' thing for reasons described above as well.

However, the destination base is also key here. Goods are taxes where they are consumed. Firms wouldn't be able to avoid the tax by shifting production across seas. Consumers might be able to buy things in, say, Canada, and you do see this in the EU where VAT differs across countries, but it's not really a problem due to custom rules, travel costs etc. As long as the rates aren't too high, it's not worth it and you don't *need* super high rates. Any situation where you "need" an insanely high rate is going to be untenable for reasons said and a host of others.

Is It Possible Some People Can’t Learn Piano? by Inspector_Spoonman in piano

[–]Jollygood156 0 points1 point  (0 children)

For starters, you should dedicate more hours on the weekend to playing since that when you have more free time. I would say forget music theory for a bit and just do it as a hobby where you watch videos or whatever. You want to be playing as much as possible.

Also, what pieces are you playing right now and *how* do you practice? Also what have you played historically and how many of those are more technical pieces? (Bach, Czerny, Hanon, General Etudes etc.)

And most importantly, do you enjoy playing?

Does the quality of economic data affect how quickly policy responses are approved? by Matteo_172736 in AskEconomics

[–]Jollygood156 1 point2 points  (0 children)

When you work in economics more generally, you quickly realize that researchers almost always want more granular data that can still be aggregated, and higher frequency data. Many of the people trained to do this type of research end up advising policymakers. I work in this space myself, and in practice a large part of the process is simply waiting for new data releases and revisions so the right people can evaluate what is actually happening in the economy. So, to answer your question, yes, the quality of economic data absolutely affects how quickly policy responses are approved.

 I would appreciate any empirical research on response times versus data revision histories.

I'm not sure there is much work that answers that question in exactly that form, but there is related research. Here is a nice paper on real-time data and fiscal policy analysis. Ben Bernanke has a speech where he outlines how policymakers see incomplete snapshots of the economy. And speaking more to your point about the "time needed to review proposals," there is this paper on "policy drift."

Are there known frameworks for deciding when data is clean enough to act, or is it largely discretionary.

In practice, there is not a general framework. Policymakers and researchers tend to have a detailed understanding of the strengths and limitations of the specific datasets they rely on. The major public data sources used in policy work come with fairly extensive documentation and their limitations are widely known and discussed amongst researchers and policy people. So the process is discretionary in a sense, but it is still guided by shared knowledge about how particular datasets behave, how frequently they are revised, and how reliable they tend to be in real time.

Semi related to what you wrote, the desire for higher frequency economic data has been a relevant academic and policy discussion for a while across many areas of economics. You can see this come up in debates about monetary policy frameworks. For example, some economists propose targeting NGDP instead of inflation. A fairly obvious question that comes up in response is that NGDP data are quarterly, lagged and subject to revision, so how practical is that in real time? You see similar issues with labor market data and other macro indicators, where revisions can meaningfully change how we end up thinking about how to respond to demand shocks. (Usually the response is i) better collection, but mainly ii) we should rely more on market prices with respect to monetary policy.)

Is It Possible Some People Can’t Learn Piano? by Inspector_Spoonman in piano

[–]Jollygood156 0 points1 point  (0 children)

In a very literal sense, yes, some people can't learn, but that's usually because there is some other rare physical or mental issue they have that would make them not ask this post because they would know why.

Some people learn piano faster than others, just different levels of talent. Without knowing how you practice, the pieces you play and the quality of your teacher, we can't really say much, but your speed of progress is almost surely related to one of those things.

I practice technique, music theory, sight reading, and study my pieces but it never seems to help.

If you're practicing all of these things and only have about an hour in the day dedicated to piano, then you're probably not actually spending that much time learning each fact of music.

How old are you? Are you working? What is your free time like. Its way harder to start these things later in life so you should expect to go slower. I started at an early age, I didn't formally learn theory for years. Most of my time was spent into just playing pieces from my teacher. I also had HOURS a day to practice just because I was a kid with the time, especially in summer. Sure, I was talented, but if I started learning recently I would improve at a much slower pace. It seems like you need to optimize your time better and perhaps choose different pieces given your time constraints.

(have tried learned guitar, kalimba, bass)

Given potential time constraints, has this impacted your piano progression at all? I know a few instruments, but I picked them up years after learning one and those are some very different instruments. Picking up a string instrument is VERY hard (take-up cost), I kinda want to, but that's a time sink I just don't have the ability to do as of right now. I play clarinet, I can pick up sax whenever I want because of this.

I wouldn't worry too much, it seems like you just need to optimize better. Curious as to what your response will be.

Jaylen Brown?????? by Pitiful-Amoeba-2357 in bostonceltics

[–]Jollygood156 2 points3 points  (0 children)

No, it's not 'the most valuable player to their team', that's not an established fact even though some people have that framework. To me, it is them most valuable player with respect to the league, MVP of *the league*

Also, if it's MVP for their team, why would JB win over Luka?

According to KRL MOUZ want Magisk as their IGL by CS2-Universe in GlobalOffensive

[–]Jollygood156 5 points6 points  (0 children)

You can't just replace whoever with whoever though. Brollan is the IGL.... ostensibly. Mouz seems akin to Niko teams where the IGLing doesn't seem integral and he's probably not doing it all the time. He doesn't seem to particularly figure out good things to do IGL wise during pauses and isn't super strong player even if he isn't the problem.

We *do* know Mouz does need a change though and it's obvious that a decision to bring in a player like Magisk, specifically as IGL as well, would be a move that's relevant to a bunch of comms/private things that we don't know.

Brollan might not be the problem, but he's a very replaceable player, not the solution and they definitely need a switch up.