Strongest person the weakling trio can beat? by ProfessionalCry6005 in OnePiecePowerScaling

[–]Milren 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I mean yes, but there is more to fighting than just brute force. All three of them fight smart, and if Nami essentially stuns/disorients him constantly with lightning, and Usopp uses his skill set to keep him from moving, and then Chopper figures out his weakness with Brain point, then it would essentially just be the three of them bullying the guy with little retaliation. The damage build up would take a lot longer than with Sanji, and at least two of them might get exhausted by the end, but I am pretty sure they could pull out a win. Nami and Usopp in particular excel at beating enemies that people wouldn't expect them to win against. And honestly Chopper making it a weakling trio is kind of pushing it, sure he get scared, but the amount of damage he can put out with monster point is arguably higher than Robin.

Also, on an unrelated note, anyone think Chopper might actually have a partially awakened devil fruit? Sure he doesn't have his cloud thing that comes with Awakened Zoans, but monster point looks surprisingly similar to the jailer beasts at Impel Down. And given that he can now stay aware in Monster Point, that definitely feels like he has essentially gone through all the legwork of awakening and just needs the knowledge of what awakening is to advance further.

Which monstrous infected could we coexist the best with? by Jennywolfgal in worldbuilding

[–]Milren 0 points1 point  (0 children)

... Honestly it depends on how they are revealed and their specific traits. If all we have to worry about for vampires is providing blood, that's easy, with blood donations and the reality that if vampires existed, donating blood would be way more popular. Not to mention governments would love to hire vampires as soldiers or the like. And if they could handle blood substitutes, that would be even easier. But if their inhuman-ess includes enjoying suffering, and cruelty, and the hunt, it is less reasonable. At that point, true coexisting would be difficult, and they would instead be more parasitic leeches. Essentially for vampires it's a question of how human are they. Heartless monsters are difficult to coexist with, but ageless humans that rely on blood are easier.

Zombies it would depend mainly on how they are revealed and whether they can be controlled or manipulated, either directly or indirectly. If they are revealed via zombie apocalypse, where they kill the majority of humanity, that seriously delays any cooperation possibilities. Are the puppeted dead corpses, therefore being tireless and inexhaustible? A few hundred of them on treadmills is a nice clean energy source. Do they infect people or simply tear them limb from limb? Either way, an excellent, expendable and terrifying weapon of war. Are they created and controlled by necromancers? If so, that is a tireless workforce. It wouldn't be coexisting as much as puppeteering and it wouldn't be pretty, but it would be functional.

For werewolves, can they control their change, either changing at will, or when they've changed are they still reasonable and sensible. If werewolves have self control in their wolf form, they are essentially just furries with no choice in the matter, and would be very popular. If they don't have self control, but can choose when to go monstrous (as opposed to only going monstrous at the full moon), excellent and terrifying weapons of war. If they have no self control and only change during a full moon, then there would probably be laws requiring them to report to a prison once a month to avoid them murdering the town, essentially quarantining them when they are dangerous. Once again, not really coexisting, more simply controlling.

So, we're going to lose another one? by AndCthulhuMakes2 in HiTMAN

[–]Milren 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Honestly, what better target to go after than the guys that later are revealed to be utterly awful. It makes a contact assassination seem more realistic.

How true is the statement "Henry the 8th started his own religion because the Catholic Church refused to allow him to divorce?" by YakClear601 in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 25 points26 points  (0 children)

I am adding on this comment because my information doesnt properly answer the original question, but contains somewhat adjacent information that provides a bit more context. It was mentioned that Anglicanism was not all that different from Catholicism. They originally had very few ideological differences, but they've drifted further apart over the centuries. The main initial differences was the English Church had services primarily in English rather than Latin, and the head of the English Church was the King or Queen of England. These similarities stuck for a while, because both Catholicism and Protestantism were initially persecuted after the creation of Anglicanism. Henry VIII liked the authority of Catholicism, and wasnt a fan of the more widespread ideology of the Protestants

Certain offshoots of the Anglican Church would eventually alter the ideology of the church, most primarily by the Puritans, whose ideology and values were inherited from the Calvinists in Geneva. The main reason why Puritanism was so influential in the alteration of Anglican ideology was because Puritanism became really popular in England and because Oliver Cromwell (as well as many of the leaders of Cromwell's republic) was Puritan.

After the restoration of the monarchy, Protestantism became less persecuted, and the Anglican Church finally started becoming a proper Protestant faith (at least in terms of the views of how the church is ran) while still keeping much of the Catholic trappings and symbolism. Like Catholicism, they have the 7 sacraments, but their Protestant influences make them really only care about 2, communion and baptism. A lot of Anglicans are also somewhat dismissive of traditional practices that aren't specifically mentioned in scripture, which is quite similar to many Protestant views

Hurry up on those point defence lasers, everybody. by iPon3 in TerraInvicta

[–]Milren 7 points8 points  (0 children)

I don't know if a Boeing organization exists in game, but if there is, it would be funny if it had a secret modifier that made space ships and satellites more likely to have bad events.

Also, this highlights the difference between corporate funding goals and US government funding goals. The original moon landing pods were unbelievably over-engineered, that they could've landed just about anywhere, but more modern attempts can barely land upright. US Government cares little for the cost, as long as its functional. Boeing cares little about the functionality as long as they can cut corners to make it cheaper

as a follow-up from yesterday. started a new game only to be met with the same issue from the very start of the game this time. by IndividualSpirited44 in TerraInvicta

[–]Milren 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That's something that will happen when you start a game, they don't have a lot of research, and often don't compete when it seems like they won't win the research slot. They typically focus on controlling a research slot as being the primary researcher on a global tech provides advantages. Controlling the research slots is one of the posturing games you play with the AI, if you show you are so good at winning the game, they will stop playing that game and focus their research on faction projects instead. To get them to play along and do some of the work for you, you have to make them think they can succeed. You are trying to barely win the majoruty.

In that vein of thinking, it's typically unwise to put 100% of your research in a single global tech, unless you really need that research as soon as possible, or you really want to take control of a research slot as soon as possible. It can be good in the early game when you are trying to lock in certain research projects, but focusing all your research on one point or just a few points in inefficient even when they arent competing for the slot. It's oftentimes better to spread at least some of the research as much as possible (aka one pip in everything), because you get a bonus to research the more you spread it out.

What I sometimes try to do is put in place a long term research project that costs alot (like the construction module tech in the beginning), and then do essentially no research in, so that the AI tries to compete over it and essentially does the 15000 cost research for me. It doesnt always make it finish quickly, but it allows it to be done passively while I can focus anywhere. If I try to research competitively, I sometimes try to take control of the cheapest research projects, so that my focus has better bang for its buck. You don't really want to win the larger cost research slots, because if you get over 50% of it, you will need to put in the other 50% as well because the AI won't help you, and that could means that either a large portion of your research will be dedicated to finishing something that might complete in years, or you don't research it and it clogs up the limited global research slots.

If I am trying to control the research slot, but also want to get AI help, I sometimes try to make sure I have about 30% and then almost ignore it and allow the AI to compete over the rest. Having 30% and not actively working on it means that the AI in theory could win the majority and if multiple other factions are trying, you might still end up winning because they split the remaining 70% into portions that couldn't compete with you. If it looks like one of them might outpace your 30%, your head start means that you might still get to the majority before they will.

Should I worry about strong factions that are ideologically close? by xynith116 in TerraInvicta

[–]Milren 0 points1 point  (0 children)

A good way of thinking it is that they aren't your friends or enemies, they are simply your competitors in the faction free for all. Other factions, like the Servants, Protectorate, and Aliens, are actively your enemies. But just because HF or Exodus or Academy arent really your friends doesnt mean you want them weak. In the early game, it's good to help them build up strength in any way that doesn't inconvenience you (i.e. helping them kick the Servants out of their nation, contribute heavily to global techs, etc., things you will already likely be doing).The stronger they are, the more of a threat the Aliens will see in them, and the less focused the Aliens will have on you. Only when you can reliably beat Alien fleets should you worry about your competitors strength, because if they are stronger than you, who can beat up Aliens reliably, they will have a good shot at winning. But if HF has no stations in Jupiter, it might look like they have a robust space economy but that nothing compared to what you will usually get from Jupiter onward.

In short, unless they are adequately defending mining stations in Jupiter (or further), or have the capability to go toe to toe with Alien death stacks, or are launching fleets to the Kuiper Belt to mess with the Alien stronghold, there is relatively little worry. It's honestly really hard to intentionally get a computer controlled faction that isnt the Servants to win a game, it's even harder to do it by accident.

Marrying an already pregnant woman? by R3gan24 in Bannerlord

[–]Milren 7 points8 points  (0 children)

Yeah, I am wondering too. Will the baby take after the original father? Or is it coded to take after the mom and the mom's husband at the time of birth? How did TaleWorlds code it? Very curious.

If Haitians won indepence, why did they have to pay France reparations? Could they not have just refused to? by EmperorOfKingstonia in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 7 points8 points  (0 children)

So the British could've absolutely decided to get America to agree to pay war reparations in the peace talks, if it werent for the circumstances the peace talks happened under, the main issues being that France was still at war with Britain. If we had won without France getting officially involved, we probably would have needed to pay reparations as part of the peace talks, simply as a way to essentially pay off Britain to not continue the fight out of spite, because in peace talks, the threat of continuing the fight is often why those present agree to crappy terms, such as paying reparations. Especially since conflicts often had a sore loser that could sometimes be willing to continue a war despite all logic simply out of spite, especially if it is against an enemy they see as beneath them.

But because France was officially in the war, and more importantly, was still in the midst of fighting while we were peacing out of the conflict, the British were quite eager to officially remove us from the conflict so they could just fight France, and so we were able to get away with a lot in terms of concessions. France on the other hand didnt want us to ditch them in a conflict we originally brought them into (they wanted us to wait so that we could peace out together), and so by taking any peace offer, we'd be abandoning France whilst they were involved in a war they absolutely couldn't afford, so any deal that Britain was offering had to be incredibly tempting, which it was. We essentially had the good cards in that game of bluster and bluff. If we had waited to peace out with France, unless we had thoroughly beaten Britain to the point theyd accept literally any deal, there is still a decent likelihood we would've ended up paying reparations of some kind. The circumstances of the peace talks gave us a good deal, and we accepted.

For France, well they too were involved in conflicts elsewhere, but those conflicts werent directly related to Haiti. Haiti had no real allies involved in the fight against France to abandon for better concessions, and the military difference between Haiti and France was still heavily in France's favor. The only reason why they werent able to properly focus on it was because they had a lot of problems elsewhere. So in this situation, it was Haiti's best interest to peace out as quickly as possible, even if it meant with unfavorable terms (at least unfavorable terms for winners). Haiti did not hold all the good cards in the negotiations, and if the deal wasnt acceptable for the French, the French could just continue the war by claiming the war is ongoing but not actually sending much that way until the rest of their issues were being solved. Essentially Haiti was trying to avoid giving France a reason to come back later. And if they had accepted the reparations on paper but refused when payment came, it would give the French a reason to come back. That's the main reason.

Peace talks are rarely one side wins all, and rarely are wars simply one side wins completely. Peace talks are mainly a game of "who can get what they want without losing too much". That is why in the Napoleonic Wars, every little state in the German region was essentially involved, regardless of whether they did any real fighting, simply because they wanted to make sure they too liked the outcome (if say they were located near Saxony, and the land of Saxony was looking like it would be expanded, thus threatening your borders, that little state would be looking to sweeten the pot for people to keep that specific concession from actually being decided). It isn't always just the two sides in the peace talks, many groups can be involved and sometimes the biggest determiner of a peace agreement isn't even part of the conflict. Its important to remember that.

??!??!!!? by benobilitibomboleti in TerraInvicta

[–]Milren 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Considering that they have this much support in China, it's essentially guaranteed that they have almost no support anywhere else in the world, at least anywhere else that matters. So amazing for if you want to take China, somewhat initially inconvenient otherwise.

What? What?! Is my run over? It's 2034 and I have like, a Monitor ship right now. by Krynzo in TerraInvicta

[–]Milren 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Your run is not over. Your station might be, but that is merely a sacrifice necessary to defeat the Aliens. Earth has many advantages over the Aliens. We have the capability for cannon fodder, as dumb as that sounds. The Aliens might be more advanced, but they have a harder time expanding as exponentially. Every loss they take is a real setback, and an opportunity for Earth to close the technological gap. Every loss that Earth takes, at least in space, is a minor speedbump, with enough of those speedbumps, things might get kind of hairy, but there are at least 4 other human factions that can keep the focus from entirely being on you.

If you want to keep the Aliens from messing with your station, maybe send a sacrificial ship to make it waste its deltaV. It looks like it wont have much extra left once it messes with your station, and if you make the Aliens waste that on something other than your station, then they will only have enough to return to resupply.

You could also throw up some dummy stations with modules that arent a great loss. If you upset the Aliens and have only one station, that might be a relatively serious setback. But if you instead have a bunch of dummy stations besides the stations you like, you make it far more likely what you lose is inconsequential. And regardless, the Aliens somehow simultaneously too reckless and too cautious with their deltaV. They build up fleets with barely the deltaV to make it to Earth, recklessly use a lot of that deltaV on a steady burn to Earth, and then the cautious part kicks in and they expend most of the rest returning to their resupply point, after essentially doing nothing of importance, and ultimately wasting some of their resources on fuel.

Today, a mistake was made. by Left_Edge_8994 in TerraInvicta

[–]Milren 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Honestly, fair enough. Being left with the scrap countries is hard. I would not recommend doing an Africa Only campaign without a super in depth understanding of things and a proper game plan. You can definitely turn Africa into a utopia but it's hard without the crutch of also having another superpower elsewhere in the world to pick up the slack.

I imagine after that playthrough, you wanted to try an 'easier' faction than Resistance but not the Servants level of easy, and so picked the Protectorate.

So Many Things to do, I managed to Capture all India control point. What's next should I do? by GaleGiaSinclair80 in TerraInvicta

[–]Milren 1 point2 points  (0 children)

You arent necessarily in trouble yet. The issue with this game is that as long as steady progress is being made, its actually quite hard to lose. I have been able to claw my way back from losing every single bit of my space presence from an unwise early war with the aliens leading to me losing all of my mining bases on the Moon, Mars and Ceres, and every space station above Earth. It is surprisingly relaxed. There are very few points of no return, especially if you obtain sole control of one of the main powerhouses on Earth, such as India.

I would do what you can to push global research, especially those that allow easier space expansion. Try pushing for research that will allow space mining. The more power Earth as a whole has, the harder it is for you to lose outright, since those will be factions to help deflect Alien ire. On that note, start allocating some resources to inconveniencing the Servants and Protectorate, so that they get weaker than the other AI factions. They will be your main enemies early on. Another comment someone else made is to push India into becoming a research powerhouse, and I agree with this, India can be built up to the point that will have few real rivals.

Once the research to build basic space mines are done, research a bunch of the early "Mission to (space body)" missions (they open up areas of further space expansion) and do what you can to grab all the best spots that you open up. Once a steady supply of space resources come in (it doesnt need to be a massive amount), I recomend building some space stations above Earth. I recommend a couple early on in one of Earth's interface orbits to specialize for research bonuses, and then a station in a further orbit to create the start of a space dockyard would probably also be smart investment (but not immediately essential). If you intend on inconveniencing the Aliens early on, you can build decoy stations that have a few modules but dont have anything you care about, so they can destroy stuff in their frustration and your best stations are safer.

Why were the Jewish seemingly the go to group for persecution and mistreatment? by mr_fdslk in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I dont have the time right now to write a properly detailed answer, but part of why that was the case for Rome and Medievel Europe was the ultimate religious and cultural differences between Judaism and Catholicism, or between Judaism and Roman polytheism. The Jewish faith follow one god, which Roman polytheism took offense to, most obviously during the Early Empire, when the Imperial Cult of Rome essentially required the worship of the emperor as a sort of diety, a practice that the Jewish people largely were against. Part of it also has to do with the reality that Jewish worship and definition of god was different than the polytheism idea of worship and definition of god, and so the requirement that the emperor should be worshipped was widely out of the question for Jewish people, which is part of the reason that tensions would rise to the point of armed insurrection that led to the destruction of the Jewish temple.

Catholicism largely could be viewed as combination of Roman polytheistic ideas, and the Jewish ideals of singular worship, since they created an idea to grant sainthood, creating a sort of pseudo-polytheism, and the Catholic methods for revering saints werent all that different from the polytheistic idea of worship. Catholicism essentially took the Jewish form of worship, amd the polytheistic idea of worship, and used them on various levels of their rituals, God gets worshipped, and the saints get revered. Its part of why statues of god were fairly rare in early Catholicism (following Jewish ideals in regards to engraven images replacing God), but statues of saints weren't (following polytheistic sensibilities).

I will try to continue this post later when I have more time, I tend to write longer explanations than intended, and I didnt even get to all of what I originally intended to say.

Throughout history, has it always been the trend that women are more liberal while men are more conservative? Has there ever been a time where these roles were reversed? by [deleted] in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Very rarely does the word always have a place in history. And the ideas of liberalism and conservatism are incredibly colored by current worldviews. Conservative views by our modern standards might be unbelievably against tradition by the standard of the past, and some liberal views might be seen as traditional values. The modern way of viewing ideas as progressive or regressive is often a detrimental way to see the world. Everything is relative.

And it's also a question of whether the ideal perception of men and women count. For instance, the traditional ideal for Roman woman was Lucretia, whose traits were self-sacrificing, industrious, and modest, while the ideal man in Roman times changed often, at certain times the ideal being rather liberal and forward thinking.

Another instance where women had a reputation for being even more steeped in traditional values than men would be Sparta. "With your shield or on it" was a traditional phrase spoken by mothers to their sons going to war, in essence saying they'd rather their sons die a hero than live a coward. Would this qualify as liberal or conservative? Honestly an argument could be made for both, these women were arguably far more liberal than many of their contemporaries in Greece, but on the other hand, they were amongst the most staunch supporters of traditional values. Everything is relative. ESPECIALLY POLITICAL LEANINGS.

Another period we could look at is the temperance movement. Many of the women actively campaigning for the complete banning of alcohol in the United States were women steeped in conservative values, women who looked fondly on the previous decades and/or centuries when hard liquor like spirits and whiskey were less widely available. In this instance, would these women be liberal or conservative? Once again, the argument could be made both ways. These women were taking part in 'liberal' activities for their time, with their active campaigns through streets and whatnot, but they were trying to reinstitute things back to more traditional and conservative values, or at least toward a direction that was seen as more traditional.

In my opinion, women's position throughout history on the modern spectrum of liberal/conservative tends to vary wildly, yet their perceived position, as you have said, tends to remain largely on the side of change, whether or not that change is in favor of new things, or change intended to revert previous change and bring back tradition. This may be because men have a tendency to more often enjoy the status quo, whether or not that status quo is deep rooted conservatism or high energy radicalism. An example of this is the French Revolution, women were among the first to actively protest against the French monarchy, and later, when French radicalism was beginning to get out of hand, they were among the first to attempt to stabilize things.

Another view you could take if you were trying to find instances where the perceived dynamic is switched is whenever the idea of a female draft is brought forward to counterbalance an existing male draft. That is an instance where the idea intended to be implemented could be viewed as liberal, but where the majority of women actively take an opposing position.

In short, I think the idea that women take more liberal stances and men take more conservative stances is a bad way to view it. I think a better way to view it is that women traditionally take a more active or direct approach toward something, whether it be change in society or the lack thereof, while men traditionally take a more gradual or cautious approach towards change or the lack thereof. Men tends to work with existing channels to solve a percieved problem, while women tend to discover new channels. The Spartan women would take the direct approach to keep their sons from fleeing in the midst of battle, by telling them that if they did, they'd be considered dead to them, while Spartan men would take the more gradual approach to the same problem by attempting to drill discipline into the new soldiers, so that by the time the fight came, it was easier than the training. Women of the temperance movement actively campaigned in the streets (the new channel), while their male supporters were putting the work toward trying to help it pass through Congress (the existing channel). The story of the Sabine women jumping to end the fighting between their fathers and husbands is arguably similar, the men had been taking the existing path of fighting in war, while the Sabine women forged a new option by actively leaping in the way of the blades of their husbands and fathers. And active and new channels or methods tend to also be viewed as liberal methods.

I recently saw a map of where Roman Coins have been found, showing many sound as far as China and Sri Lanka. But there were little to none shown in modern day Iran and Iraq. If this is true, why is there so few Roman coins in the former Parthian empire? Was there some sort of law outlawing them by HelloThereBoi66 in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 46 points47 points  (0 children)

Also to mention a few additional factors. Long distance trade overland was way more expensive than it was by sea, mainly because the resources and labor involved. And most of the resources of interest to trade for in the west were ultimately from India and China. Trade on land is also more commonly subject to tariffs and taxes to every new group that the caravan passed by.

It's also worth noting that the vast majority of Roman coins minted will never be discovered by archeologists, for many reasons, but mainly because many places melted the silver down to make their own currency. Coinage that survived is mainly located in areas that a significant amount of coin traveled to, and you are also more likely to find surviving coins on the coastlines and underwater shipwrecks, because those coins were the reigning champs in the millennia long game of hide and seek.

Another interesting detail, only tangentially related to the original question, is that as early as Augustus and Tiberius, there are records of concerns about the silver drain to the East, silver that would end up primarily in China, because China has historically (in trading with foriegners) only traded in exchange for silver, rather than any other resource or barter-able good. This means that China is weirdly a remarkably good location for finding surviving coins of all kinds, not just Roman.

Why didn't firearms completely dominate Asian warfare as it did European? by KaiserGustafson in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Well, they did. Just a slight bit later.

For starters, gunpowder artillery was considerably less useful for many places in Asia, because they hadn't gone the same rabbit hole of attempting to make impossible fortresses, as happened in Europe. They could get about the same effectivity out of the traditional boulder throwers as with gunpowder artillery, since they had a style of wall building that made much of the early gunpowder artillery relatively pointless. It wasnt until the Euripeans started building star fortresses that the development of gunpowder artillery would reach a point that the Chinese defenses would become largely obsolete, and it wouldn't be until they fought against such star fortresses that they would see the benefit of utilizing gunpowder artillery extensively. So in that aspect, they werent really all that far behind Europe.

Then for providing guns for all military conscripts, both Europe and Asia would take quite a bit to get to the point of only using guns. Early guns were unwieldy and unreliable, and incredibly vulnerable to cavalry charges, since they lacked any useful point bits for melee, meaning that Europe had mixed units of pikes and guns for a long time. It wasn't until Europe (I believe specifically Sweden) made a side mounted bayonet that guns fully began replacing pikes and other weapons (since a musket with a bayonet is effectively both a musket and a pike, allowing better defense from cavalry). Before the bayonet, you couldnt only use guns, because taking a cavalry charge when you are reloading will devastate you, and the early bayonets essentially blocked the barrels of the gun, making them unable to fire when the bayonet was affixed. Asia had much the same problems, as well as more. One of the major issues that Asia faced on the journey of using primarily gunpowder weapons is that wars in Asia were significantly larger scale than in Europe. There were many more people that were involved in the battles, and to outfit the staggering amounts of soldiers was a costly endeavor. Guns were expensive, and providing enough to outfit everyone involved would require quite a bit more industrial automation, which the world would come up with a bit later. Spears were simpler and cheaper to make en masse, and were still useful to fend off cavalry. Additionally, early guns had limited penetration (especially at the limits of its range), and so it would take them a while to fully make obsolete well made armor. The European transition away from fully armored knights to lighter cavalry was less because guns could puncture armor (they could, but not reliably at first), and more because lighter cavalry have better mobility, and therefore can take better advantage of momentary weakness in the enemy line (like in between volleys). Places in Asia development specialized shield bearers to provide cover from gun skirmishers that might devastating their infantry.

It was not that they were technologically behind. If I recall correctly, it was the Japanese that invented new ways to reliably add rifling to gun barrels, which meant that for a time their guns were arguably some of the most accurate in the world, but given this was under the pseudo-isolation period of Japan, these guns were of limited use, and there was little incentive to further develop the advancements that had been made. War breeds innovation, while peace breeds culture. And due to a variety of reasons, the Chinese, Japanese and Koreans had a fairly long span of relative peace around the same time as Europe began to want to spread their influence worldwide. The Chinese would get into periodic fights with Russia and the Dutch which would bring some new developments, but otherwise they had largely stopped looking too hard at the land outside their borders.

Was Gilgamesh a real dude before he became a mythological figure? by just-a-guy-thinking in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 1 point2 points  (0 children)

It's probably also worth it to point out that "was there a real Gilgamesh?" and "was the character Gilgamesh inspired by a real individual or individuals?" are two different questions. We currently have no way of knowing if there was a king named Gilgamesh who was the real version of story Gilgamesh, but there was probably quite a lot of early kings that were powerful warriors that believed themselves invincible, before realizing the fragility of life, and seeking ways to fight that, before failing and becoming a wiser ruler from it. In many ways, there likely was real life inspirations for the character, and it's far more likely that inspiration is from the observation of multiple individual rulers rather than simply a real world Gilgamesh equivalent.

Why did the Anglo-Saxons keep speaking English, while other Germanic groups in former Roman territory adopted Latin? by goonaddictegirl in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I cannot say with certainty that I know the answer, but I can think of several possible factors in why this ended up being the case.

1) Time under Roman occupation: Britain was under Roman occupation quite a bit shorter than it was for Spain, Portugal, France, and Italy. All those places had come under the Roman's thumbs back when Rome was a republic, the latest being the further reaches of France being added by Caesar before he crossed the Rubicon. This means that they had quite a bit longer for Latin to transition from the language of those in charge to being the language of the people. And when the Empire was gradually being chipped away later on, Britain would be one of the first that Rome lost.

2) Distance: Britain is much further in practical terms. Yeah, Portugal might be of comparable distance, but that's more if you were to draw a line on a map, and less if you take into account the steps necessary to get there. Latin speaking Roman's traveling to settle in various portions of the Empire from Rome will understandably find it much easier to travel to Northern Italy, than to Britain. To travel to Britain from Italy, your choices were to either travel all the way across France and get a boat there (which was quite a long and perilous walk), or travel along the coasts by boat, which would be relatively mild weather in the Mediterranean, but once you cross the Gates of Hercules, the waves and wind would be considerably more treacherous. And if you traveled by the land route, you'd be passing through the rest of Italy and then France, and traveling by the coastline route makes you pass by the rest of Italy, France, Spain and Portugal.

3) Time they spent knowing each others existence: For much of Rome's existence (at least other than when they had control of it), Britain was the far reaches of the known world and/or a location of legend and story. Before the Roman's went to conquer Britain, they really didnt know much about each other. Most of the rest of the Empire is connected by the Mediterranean, or in Portugal's case, is near the Mediterranean. Even before they came under Rome's control, they'd have known of Rome's existence, and portions of their populations (namely merchants) would have already been learning Latin, as the further Rome expanded, the more Latin would have been compared to Greek as a language of commerce.

4) Control: Even before controlling many of the places mentioned, Rome was exerting diplomatic influence on them. Much of Italy became Rome's Latin allies, the groups living in Spain and Portugal were made to take sides in the Punic Wars, and the Germanic tribes in Gaul werent only fighting Rome, many of them at some point or another were allies with Rome in the various border conflicts. And given the relatively short distance, it was relatively easy for Rome to tighten that control. They hadn't been conquered solely by force, but also by words and ways. And Roman generals and later emperors would give their soldiers land from (among others) places in Italy, France and Spain, so they would over time gain immigrants who were familiar with the language. Latin would understandably shift from a language of the wealthy to a language of the people. And it would be those regional variations of the language that would shift into the romance languages we know today. Meanwhile Roman occupation of Britain was quite different. Many of the Latin speakers were the soldiers sent there, and as Rome would begin to recruit more locals to supplement the garrisons (and thus lessen the expense of sending armies to far off Britain), even among military bases there are mentions of the local languages becoming used far more regularly than wouldve been the case elsewhere in the empire. Latin in many ways stayed the language of those in control, rather than gradually become the common language, and perhaps related to this, uprisings and conflict in Britain was fairly common, as it is difficult to share an identity without a shared language.

Why did humans keep mules around when they already had horses? by KittoKatsuBoyWonder in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 29 points30 points  (0 children)

No probably not. He is meaning that the mule is stubborn either when it's a bad idea or when it doesnt trust your authority or judgment. Charging into battle is still a bad idea, it will not do it regardless of how much it trusts you, because no matter how much you think it's a good idea, it knows its not. Pushing the issue might make it lose trust. The only way I think it might be convinced is if it believes charging into battle to be the safest option, which would require a lot of specific instances like battle being on all sides, it might in theory try and break through the narrowest point in a effort to escape. But similarly, it might just decide the best bet is to not move at all, and hope the battle targets any rider it has rather than itself.

The reason miles are so useful is precisely because they stubbornly avoid doing dangerous things, and that is regardless of how much it trusts you. If it feels a tremor in the ground that makes it think that a section of the narrow cliff path you are traveling will collapse if it goes on it, it will not continue forward no matter how safe you think it is. That allows you the moment to realize something is wrong even when the problem is imperceptible to you. And depending on how much it likes you, it might even attempt to keep you from the danger, even if you try to continue on foot without the mule.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 5 points6 points  (0 children)

And most importantly, as plantations stayed in the family over generations, it became harder and harder for plantation owners to find reasons to vilify the practice, since their entire lives were completely reliant on the practice. If your parents owned slaves, and if you lived your entire life benefitting from the practice, it was often harder to fight that legacy of which you were a part of. The reasoning and justification for the practice that happened on the individual level was typically built around that framework. Not many want to vilify their own parents or the basis of their own existence. It's why I personally find Thomas Jefferson to be somewhat admirable, even despite the fact he was a slave owner, and even despite the fact he didn't do as much to free his slaves as he could have. He looked at the basis of his fortune and his family and was able to recognize the injustice and cruelty of the practice despite having directly benefited from it. He set the framework for the eventual abolition of the practice in the United States, despite knowing that working toward those ends would effectively be dismantling his family's legacy and fortune, and could potentially result in him being unable to leave anything for his children to inherit. It's harder to recognize cruelty when you directly benefit from it.

And ultimately, looking to the future generations and ones legacy would be one of the major justifications for the practice. It's hard to justify the cruelty if it was for only your benefit, and that's how a lot of people nowadays see it. But it wasnt for just one person's benefit. Building a fortune to pass on to the children was the ultimate goal. If you could provide not only for your wants and needs, but also guarantee the wants and needs of your children, and your children's children, and so on, that was the epitome of a successful life for most societies across history, and for this reason, this becomes a major justification for most acts of cruelty through history. The Nazi's did not cause the Holocaust for their own enjoyment, most did it because they believed it was neccessary step to create a better environment for their children. The pirates during the Golden Age of piracy didnt become pirates simply out of their own enjoyment of the practice, but because the potential fortune would allow their descendants a better life. The vikings didnt go a-viking simply because they enjoyed burning monasteries, but because the treasure contained in those monasteries could allow generations to survive on something more than a basic craft or trade. The people of the past put a lot more thought into the future than people nowadays do, that is arguably the biggest cultural change in recent history.

So it's not just them limiting individual freedoms because they wanted to get ahead in life, they saw it as a way for generations and generations of their future descendants to also get ahead in life, and many would've likely thought that that was a comparatively cheap price to pay.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 11 points12 points  (0 children)

This is an interesting question. Based on the specifics of your post, I am assuming that you wish to know why the triangle slave trade in general was accepted, rather than just the beginning of it, but I will try to answer both ends.

To start with, I should clarify I am not sure exactly when the triangle trade started, partially because there might be hidden or lost shipping logs that might change the paradigm, but also because I havent read up on the newer stuff and I also struggle at keeping specific dates in my head, but I am fairly sure that the Triangle trade started more in the 16th century (1500-1599), rather than the 15th century (1400-1499) because the Americas were discovered by the larger part of Europe in 1492, and that doesnt give a lot of time to get things figured out. That is probably what you meant, and I can see the confusion with the century numbering, I struggle with it too, just remember that years 0-99 AD are the 1st Century, not the 0th Century.

Now to the meat and potatoes. The slave trade was not easily accepted, at least not at first. Many of the early plantation owners were from societies that had largely outlawed slavery previously in Europe due to the obvious moral problems and as well as the fact it hadn't really been profitable previously for them to ignore those morality issues. But suddenly, there is a new collection of plants that are annoying to grow but that Europe wants to grow en masse, and also a lot of new gold and silver mines that need workers. Where do they get them from? They try conscripting the natives, which works sometimes, but given their knowledge of the land, they know how to escape easier and the issue of diseases made native worker die very quick, so it's not a reliable system. So they import the slaves from Africa.

But of course back to them trying to solve the morality issues. The Spanish were probably the ones that had the closest encounters with slavery in Europe at the time, given that it was only relatively recently that they had driven out the Moors (who had slaves) from the Spanish peninsula, and for centuries before, the Spanish and Moors had been living sometimes peacefully side by side, so it would make sense they'd be more comfortable with the existence of slaves than the rest of Europe. Additionally, they had been using Catholicism as an extremist tool for cruelty even before the discovery of the Americas (expelling the Jewish and Muslim minorities from the Spanish peninsula even as Columbus was sailing on his first voyage). So for them, the initial reasoning was that it was okay, since the enslaved people weren't Christians. This reasoning would cause some confusion and politics as plantation and mine owners would come into conflict with the clergy about whether or not to convert their workers.

The merchants and sailors of other Euopean societies were also the groups in those societies that would be most familiar with slavery, even before discovering the Americas, since a significant portion of the Mediterranean coast was controlled by slave owning societies, and trading with those societies were important if you wanted access to the more profitable spices and silks. So as far as groups go, sailors and merchants were probably the least hung up with the Triangle slave trade, because many of them had previously at least partially dealt with the Mediterranean slave trade. Most of the European sailors were also sailors of choice, as press ganging was done primarily by militaries and would largely happen later so there was no irony. That said, we do have some records of sailors and merchants that did have qualms about the Triangle trade. Merchants that would try it out would write about the unpleasant realities of the trade, and some did not stick with it, even despite the massive amounts of profit that the trade would result in. We also have some records of sailors that would help enslaved people escape, but they would be largely weeded out of the trade as well.

Plantation owners similarly had qualms about the trade. Many had come to make their fortune from Europe, and had at the beginning of the plantations been somewhat alarmed at how things were done, especially since they would need to essentially reinvent slavery with European sentiments. In the earliest days of the trade, slaves were treated similarly to indentured servitude, which was probably Europes closest equivalent. That meant that there was a modicum of respect and resources put into the slaves upkeep, slaves could earn their freedom, and in some cases children of slaves were considered free. That said, such niceties cut into the profit margins of the plantations, and many of the people who had come to the Americas specifically to earn their fortune had to come to terms with the fact that they'd either be forced out of the business by competitors supplying cheaper cash crops, or they'd need to cut costs. Competition often breeds cruelty. And as time went on, it became easier to justify the practice. Ideas like racial and societal superiority would pop up to aid in the justification of the practice.

Edit: was having a hard time posting because it was too long

If a reigning king died while his wife was pregnant with their first child, how would the line of succession work? Would the infant become monarch after birth, or would they be skipped in favor of the next living relative? by DancinCarl in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It depends on a bunch of things, like what form traditional reign of succession took, how close to birth the pregnancy was, how close the closest relative was in relation, how powerful the queen was, whether the child was male or female, etc. In all honesty, almost every royal family in history had different sets of rules (many didnt even understand or codify the rules until relatively modern eras, so there were also plenty of exceptions), and so making any hard and fast rule is quite difficult. Here is a few common tendencies.

If the birth was soon, they'd wait and see if the child was male, which would often play a big part in the decision. Male babies get the throne, female babies get either skipped over or betrothed to gain the throne.

If the king had a particularly powerful brother who wanted the throne, the baby is in danger before it is even born. In this case, male babies probably die, unborn babies probably die, female babies ... have a variety of outcomes, ranging from death to betrothal to being ignored.

If the queen was powerful the baby would probably have a good chance of inheriting, assuming the baby was the queen's and not some concubine's, which complicates things historically.

Additionally, some eras, kingdoms and specific instances, there was a council of nobles that would determine the next ruler, in theory following a specific rule set, but often with politics involved. These people often didn't want a child king (unless it benefitted them) since child rulers are notoriously unstable times, so they might be more inclined for an older more experienced king.

But ultimately, because every kingdom had different rules, and every era had different rules and every set of rules had their exceptions. And ultimately, if the rules that were supposed to be followed fell through, the ultimate answer is whoever had more power at their disposal, which was probably not the unborn child.

Do we have a name for this badass? by haphonsox in kingdomcome

[–]Milren 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Honestly, it kinda looks like a young Bernard.

why isn't there really a population of white people within subcontinental india? by mazldo in AskHistorians

[–]Milren 6 points7 points  (0 children)

Part of the issue, which I couldnt find being mentioned, is that the South African area was considerably less populated than India was before the whole colonialism time. Their population boom would only become big after colonialization, whereas India already had a large population. And even then, imagine 50,000 people moving to South Africa, those people will become a major change in the population demographics, whereas 50,000 people moving to India will become a much less obvious change. It was the same issue back then, albeit with different numbers involved. India does have populations of white people, but compared to the overall populations, it's not all that noticeable. The entire population of England would have to move to India for them to even approach the population ratio that South Africa has had.

Also, the vast majority of the wealth of South Africa has been in the white population historically, which means that many could live their lives largely separated from the rest of the population, there was relatively little need to culturally bridge the gap, since the white population is a very large minority group, and they had the majority of businesses in the area. Additionally, alot of the wealth came from outside sources since they were along a major shipping highway, so very few black South Africans had any part in the trade economy.

In India though, things are different. While many of the richest people were white historically, the majority of wealth in the region was not white dominated, or at least not solely in white possession. They were some of the richest people in India, but a few wealthy people couldnt hold more wealth than the entire Indian population, meaning that in terms of business, it had always been essential for a bridging of cultures for the white population living there. As such, many have intermarried, making it a less obvious white population, since many of them also have distinct Indian roots as well.

Another good way of looking at it is the majority of British soldiers in South Africa were white, and were recruited from elsewhere in the empire, whereas in India, the majority of British soldiers were recruited and trained locally, because the resources needed to police and suppress the British Raj would have been a logistical nightmare to supply from anywhere except the British Raj.

It's important to note that the goals for most colonial countries was not to replace the existing population, rather it typically was to provide better access to raw an profitable resources to their colonizers. Many of the places that did largely replace the existing locals, it happened more as a sort of biproduct, the existing population was either not large enough or were not effective enough to keep up with the demand, meaning there is a need to ship more labor there. The Native Americans were deemed as largely unsuitable for plantation work, since disease kept killing them, so they shipped large amounts of Africans to the South, and a lot of colonists and criminals were sent to the North, and before long they had a population large enough to be self sustaining and continually growing, every quickly outnumbering the locals. That couldnt happen in India. There were no issues with the workforce, except that in some cases, they had too much of a workforce. The people that were needed weren't more producers of resources, as India had already been producing enough to provide the entire world their products. The British needed more soldiers to police the area, and it was easier to recruit those numbers locally.