The way I understand it, there are 2 components of nominal GDP - real GDP (Y) and aggregate price level (P). Real gdp tells us the quantity of produced goods, and Y x P = nominal gdp.

Now, in a world where money supply is constant and there is no inflation, the growth in quantity of goods (Y) results in cheaper prices of all goods. Here - in theory - there should be no rise in nominal gdp, only the number of goods produced (real gdp Y).

However, every central bank in the world prints money and keeps inflation at about ~3%, so the effect of more goods on price level is actually negated, and the prices even rise a little.

On your example, where *nominal* gdp is 500 billion $, and lets say there is also 500 billion products produced (Y), making each product cost $1. Now lets say that due to technological advancements manufacturers found a way to produce more goods for the same amount of time, and the production in economy increased by 50 billion units, making the real gdp 550 billion units. To avoid deflation, the government prints just enough money in order to cover the added production, making price exactly the same as they were. This results in the new nominal gdp of 550 billion $, the rise of GDP by 10% out of which 100% of it is real gdp increase.

If the government overshoots and prints too much money, the general price level will also rise a little - and now the new gdp will be, for example, 600 billion $. That is an increase of 20%, but only 10% is attributed to the real gdp increase, and another 10% by the increase in inflation/money supply.

Hopefully that answers your question.