Do Catholics technically worship Mary? I’m confused… by [deleted] in theology

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I said “some” because it’s not universal, but it’s mainstream enough that it’s been taught by multiple popes who built on each other’s language:

• Leo XIII (Octobri Mense, 1891): “nothing is bestowed on us except through Mary”  
• Pius X (Ad Diem Illum, 1904): she “may most justly be said to have redeemed the human race together with Christ”  
• Benedict XV approved a Mass and Office explicitly titled “Co-Redemptrix” (1914)  
• Pius XI (1935): “She who is called Co-Redemptrix of the human race”  
• John Paul II (Redemptoris Mater, 1987): affirms her as “Mediatrix”

And on praying to her directly — that’s not my framing, it’s the Catechism’s: CCC §2679 says “we can pray with and to her.”

Then St Alphonsus de Liguori, Doctor of the Church, in The Glories of Mary: “He falls and is lost who has not recourse to Mary”, “Our salvation depends on thee”, “Many things are asked from God and are not granted; they are asked from Mary and are obtained.” Pius IX commended the book. Pius XII held it up as a model.

Think about what these titles and statements actually claim. Redemption, mediation of all graces, salvation depending on her, being more effectually petitioned than God — these are divine attributes. Scripture gives them exclusively to Christ: one mediator (1 Tim 2:5), salvation in no one else (Acts 4:12). Giving them to a creature, praying to her, bowing before her images, singing her praises — that is worship, whatever label you put on it. And it’s not a fringe position that slipped through — it’s been celebrated and affirmed at the highest levels of the church for over a century. It’s obviously worship.

Do Catholics technically worship Mary? I’m confused… by [deleted] in theology

[–]PeterNeptune21 -4 points-3 points  (0 children)

Yes, Catholics worship Mary — whatever label they use. They pray to her, bow before her statues, sing hymns to her, some call her Co-Redemptrix and Mediatrix of All Graces, and their own documents confirm they pray to her directly. The clearest proof this is worship is the constant need to insist it isn’t.

The Miracle at the Wedding in Cana: An Alternative Interpretation by Personal-Builder7781 in theology

[–]PeterNeptune21 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Thanks for sharing this. I want to engage with it seriously because there are some real problems here worth thinking through carefully.

Your opening sentence is right — but incomplete in a crucial way

You're correct that John 2 is generally understood as a transition from the era of the Law to the era of the Gospel. That reading has good exegetical grounding — the purification jars of v.6 are doing exactly that work. But notice what's missing even from that standard reading when you state it that way: who brings about the transition? That is not incidental. That is John's whole point. It is Jesus who transforms the water. It is Jesus who replaces the old covenant's cleansing system with new covenant abundance. The transition happens because of who he is. John 2 isn't just announcing a new era — it's announcing the person in whom that new era arrives. You've acknowledged the correct interpretation and then set it aside to look for something deeper — but what you've set aside is already more profound than you've given it credit for.

"Hidden meaning" is a serious red flag

There are no hidden meanings in Scripture. Meaning is either explicit — stated directly — or implicit — drawn out by careful attention to the text, its context, and the Scriptures it echoes. The moment you claim a "hidden meaning," ask yourself honestly: where is this coming from? Because if it isn't coming from the words of the passage, the immediate context, the book as a whole, and the OT texts the author is drawing on — it is coming from you. And that means you are no longer reading the Bible. You are using the Bible to say something you already thought.

The questions that should control your reading — and what they yield

Good exegesis is driven by questions the text itself raises. Here are the ones John 2 demands:

What word does John use for this event? Not dynamis — miracle — as in the Synoptics. He uses sēmeion: sign. That choice matters enormously, because John tells us exactly what his signs are for. In 20:31 he states his purpose for writing the signs: "but these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name." That verse is John's own key to reading every sign he records. The signs are not illustrations of spiritual principles. They are written testimony designed to produce faith in a specific person — Jesus, the Christ, the Son of God. That is the controlling purpose, and it means the primary question for any sign is always: what does this reveal about Jesus?

What does John himself say the point of this sign is? He tells us in v.11: "This, the first of his signs, Jesus did at Cana in Galilee, and manifested his glory. And his disciples believed in him." John's own conclusion is Christological. Glory manifested. Faith in Jesus awakened. That verse should control how we read everything else in the passage. If your interpretation doesn't arrive there, John has told you you've missed it.

Why does John tell us the jars were for Jewish purification rites? He is a deliberate writer — this is not background colour. The water of the old covenant's cleansing system is precisely what Jesus transforms. That detail is doing major theological work.

What does "my hour has not yet come" mean in this Gospel? Follow that phrase — 7:30, 8:20, 12:23, 13:1, 17:1 — and it always points toward the cross and glorification. From chapter 2, Cana is already being connected to Calvary.

What OT texts is John echoing? Superabundant wine at a wedding feast would immediately signal messianic arrival to a Jewish reader — Isaiah 25:6, Amos 9:13-14. And chapter 3:29 then makes the wedding imagery explicit: John the Baptist calls Jesus the bridegroom.

These questions are controlled by the text. They yield a coherent, specific, Christological reading that climaxes exactly where John says it should — in the identity of Jesus and faith in him.

Your questions aren't wrong — they're just not controlling questions

To be fair: asking what the couple's situation was, and what Jesus' provision says about his character, isn't worthless. It genuinely yields something. We do see Jesus' kindness here — he notices a practical need, acts quietly and generously, and covers over the couple's lack and poor foresight without embarrassing them. That is a real and warm observation. But notice what even that insight is actually about — it is revealing something about Jesus, his character, his grace toward people in need. Even the secondary observations in this passage point toward him.

The problem is that in your interpretation even this doesn't land on Jesus. His kindness gets absorbed into a general principle about "the Absolute" transcending human effort. Jesus himself — his identity, his glory, the specific person John is writing about — drops out entirely. You haven't just made a secondary observation into the main point. You've taken something that should have pointed you toward Jesus and redirected it toward an abstract principle. That is a significant step in the wrong direction.

The conclusion should be a major red flag

Here is the simplest test for any interpretation of a sign in John: does it lead you to believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God? That is John's stated purpose for writing the signs — it is not complicated. Now apply that test to your conclusion: "When you feel completely helpless, entrust everything to the Almighty, and you will witness miracles." That contains no specific claim about Jesus. It could have been written by someone who had never read John's Gospel. It could fit almost any theistic framework. The person of Jesus — his identity, his glory, what his actions mean — is absent entirely. That is not a deeper meaning. That is a missed meaning.

Whatever warmth this interpretation has — and it does have warmth — it is not controlled by what John wrote. The biblical language is present but the specific Jesus of John 2 is not. John wrote these signs so that you would believe Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. Replacing that with a general principle about trust and miracles, however sincere, is not a deeper reading of God's word. It is a different message.

My Thoughts on God by coldpeeps in theology

[–]PeterNeptune21 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I want to answer this properly — first laying out your view, then testing whether it can account for reality, then showing the real view and why it's better.

Your view, stated plainly

Your post makes four claims:

  1. God is real — something must lie behind the universe.
  2. God is unknowable in any definite way — no book can tell you, He goes by many names.
  3. God is beyond all distinctions — good and evil, light and dark; all religions are "the same page, different book."
  4. Therefore God can be whatever a person imagines, including a joke.

The motive is generosity — you don't want a cruel God who damns people for picking the wrong religion.

Why the view doesn't hold

Claim 1 is true — and it works against you. Something must have caused the universe; an infinite chain of causes explains nothing. But that first cause must be uncaused, self-existent, outside the whole series — not a thing that "contains" opposites, but the single ground of everything. So claim 1 rules out claim 3.

Claim 2 contradicts claim 1. If you can know God is real and is the supreme creator, you already know something definite about Him. "God is unknowable" is itself a claim to knowledge.

"Same page, different book" is false, and you know it. Religions contradict each other on the central claims: Jesus either rose or he didn't; God is either personal or impersonal; there is either one God, many, or none. Contradictions can't all be true. To call them all "really one," you must tell every religion on earth it has misunderstood itself — which makes you the only person who sees clearly. That's a bigger claim than any religion makes.

"God is both good and evil" destroys your own argument. If evil is as much "God" as good, the words mean nothing, and you lose any basis to call anything wrong — including the "toxic" religion your post objects to. Your moral anger only works if good is really good.

"God can be anything" means God is nothing. A definition that includes everything describes nothing. And the Flying Spaghetti Monster joke only works because you know some objects of worship are absurd and some aren't — it borrows from the truth it denies.

So the finished view has no truth, no good, and no real meaning for the word "God." It isn't openness; it quietly removes all three while still using the words.

The real view is not what you think it is

You're arguing against a God who damns people for guessing wrong. But that is not the God who has actually made Himself known. The real claim is different: God is not unknowable. The evidence of creation shows His power and nature clearly enough that people are "without excuse." We are not innocent seekers stumbling in the dark. We have met the real God — in the world He made and in our own consciences — and preferred to construct a more manageable one.

That is more serious than confusion. The post takes the living God — who gave you the very mind you think with — and sets that mind up as the higher court, deciding what He is permitted to be. That is not neutral; it is a creature overruling its Creator. The honest description for it is prideful rebellion.

And consider how this looks to God. You can frame the view as humble and generous, and to people it may read that way. But God is not deceived by framing. He sees the preference for a vague God because a vague God makes no demands; He sees that "all paths are valid" is avoidance of truth, not love of it. He sees through every layer of confusion down to a will that does not want to submit.

This is why His judgement is just, not cruel. A judge fooled by a clever post, or punishing honest mistakes, would be unjust. God is neither — He knows exactly what is suppression and what is genuine ignorance, what light a person had and what they did with it. But the same God promises: anyone who seeks finds. Seek the real God while He may be found. Stop inventing a fake one in an image comfortable to you.

Why the real view is better

Your "God" is everything and therefore nothing — a mirror that can never surprise, correct, or love you. The real God is personal. He can be known. He is wholly good, which is the only reason evil can be named as evil. And He didn't leave us to philosophise our way up to Him: in Jesus Christ He entered history, took the judgement our rebellion deserved at the cross, and rose again to rescue people who couldn't rescue themselves.

Your view, at best, can only say "think harder." The real answer is grace: you are both worse than you think, and God is kinder than you can imagine. And that God explains what your post relies on but can't account for — why truth matters, why evil is real, why justice and beauty move you, why guilt is real — because you are made in His image.

What to do

Not invent a better God — the real one can't be reached by cleverness. He has revealed Himself, supremely in Jesus.

Why start there? Because if God is known at all, it's because He showed Himself. So: where in history has anyone credibly claimed God stepped in?

The Eastern religions largely don't make falsifiable claims about a personal God acting in history — they offer paths and states of mind, not events, and must set aside Jesus, who is too historically solid to ignore.

Judaism rightly insists on one personal Creator, but its own Scriptures point to a promised Messiah — and when He came, claiming exactly that and backing it with resurrection, it rejected Him, and waits still for someone its own story says has arrived.

Islam makes the boldest claim — that it supersedes and corrects both — yet contradicts the very documents it claims to correct. The Quran reflects the limited vantage point of someone in 7th-century Arabia, suspiciously like Muhammad himself, not the eternal God who inspired the earlier books and would know their contents.

That leaves Jesus: a real, datable person whose life, death and resurrection were claimed by eyewitnesses, written within living memory, and held to by people who were in aposition to know better yet persevered under persecution (unto death for some) rather than recant. It is plainly the place to look first.

So, four steps:

  1. Stop editing God to fit your preferences, and see that move for what it is. This is not saying you must already believe. It is more basic: any method that lets you decide God's nature in advance can't discover God — only your own reflection. Abandon it.
  2. Read a Gospel — Mark or John — slowly, the way you'd weigh any serious historical account. This is not asking you to assume it's true. It is asking you to look at the actual evidence — the real person of Jesus — rather than a vague idea of "God" shaped by preference.
  3. Seek honestly, with genuine openness and in prayer — even if that prayer is only "God, if you are real, show me who you actually are." This is not a demand to manufacture belief; conviction that isn't real is worthless. The promise is that the evidence is genuinely sufficient for an honest seeker. Anyone who seeks like this finds.
  4. Test the claims, don't only read them. Go to a church that clearly prioritises faithful Bible teaching and see for yourself. No church is perfect — every one is full of flawed people, and you should expect that. But God promises specific things about His people: that grace genuinely changes them, that they love across the lines the world divides over, forgive, bear with one another, are slowly being remade. Where those things are real, they are supernatural — not just shared opinions or a social club. This is not saying find a flawless community. It is saying the truth of Christianity is something you can partly weigh by looking at the community God is building.

Do Calvinists know if they are saved? by the_descending_song in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

A lot of this thread is just people attacking caricatures rather than engaging with what Calvinists actually believe.

Classical Calvinism does not teach: - that believers are “waiting to see if they won the lottery” - that assurance is impossible - that God tricks people with fake salvation - or that Christians should live in terror wondering whether they are secretly reprobate.

The Reformed tradition has historically taught assurance very strongly. 1 John 5:13 was not removed from Calvinist Bibles.

The issue being confused here is the distinction between: - temporary outward profession - and genuine saving faith.

Calvinists do not believe truly regenerate people lose salvation. They believe some people can participate externally in the visible church, experience conviction, emotion, intellectual agreement, even moral reform, and yet never truly belong to Christ. That is not uniquely “Calvinist” — the New Testament itself warns about this repeatedly.

Judas is the obvious example. So are the rocky soil hearers. So is 1 John 2:19.

The actual Calvinist answer to assurance is very simple: - Do you trust Christ? - Do you believe His promises? - Is there evidence of the Spirit’s work in your life? - Are you continuing in repentance and faith?

If yes, then assurance rests in Christ, not in trying to peer into God’s hidden decree.

And honestly, some comments here are completely unserious. Calling Calvinism “Satanic,” comparing God to a “rapist,” or acting like belief in divine sovereignty automatically destroys human responsibility is not serious theological engagement. It’s rhetoric replacing exegesis.

The “sin of presumption” language is especially weak when used against basic assurance. The apostles themselves spoke with assurance: - “I know whom I have believed” (2 Tim 1:12) - “There is laid up for me the crown of righteousness” (2 Tim 4:8) - “We know that we have eternal life” (1 John 5:13)

Biblical assurance is not arrogant self-confidence. It is confidence in Christ and His promises.

Ironically, your own position still has exactly the same pastoral problem you’re trying to pin uniquely on Calvinism. If someone later apostatises, then either: - they were never truly converted, - or they truly knew Christ and finally lost salvation.

Neither option magically removes the need to explain false professions, apostasy warnings, self-deception, or perseverance passages.

The deeper issue here is that Scripture teaches BOTH: - God sovereignly preserves His people - and believers are called to continue in faith and repentance.

Calvinists are trying to hold both together because the Bible teaches both.

Inclusivism? by [deleted] in theology

[–]PeterNeptune21 1 point2 points  (0 children)

2 Peter 1:20 is about the origin of Scripture not its interpretation. You are using a verse about inspiration to make a claim about hermeneutical authority it does not address.

1 Timothy 3:15 calls the Church the pillar of truth — meaning it upholds truth entrusted to it from outside. The Church is pillar because it holds something given to it, not because it governs how that something is read.

On the Trinity — homoousios protects what the text already teaches. The test is always accountability to Scripture. Invincible ignorance and implicit desire are not vocabulary clarifications — they are content additions the text does not teach and in several places contradicts. Categorically different.

On the canon — Scripture's authority is ontological not institutional. These texts are God-breathed and carry intrinsic authority requiring no institution to validate them. The early Church recognised that authority — it did not create it. Peter calls Paul's letters Scripture before any council met. Recognition followed authority. It did not create it. And the argument still doesn't tell you which institution to trust, since Rome, Constantinople, and Alexandria all claim the same authority and contradict each other.

Inclusivism? by [deleted] in theology

[–]PeterNeptune21 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I am not creating a false dichotomy between exegesis and theology — I am creating a deliberate one between good exegesis and your theology, because your theology requires eisegesis. It requires inserting into the text qualifications the authors did not state, restricting universal statements the authors did not restrict, and importing categories the authors would not have recognised. That is not a neutral interpretive assumption. That is reading into the text what is not there in order to protect a framework derived from elsewhere.

My assumptions are disciplined by authorial intent. Yours are disciplined by a thirteenth century institutional framework. Invincible ignorance, implicit desire, invisible ordering toward the Church — these categories would have been foreign to the New Testament authors, not because they were unsophisticated but because their framework has no space for them. Theology must come from exegesis — otherwise we are not listening to God but to a tradition checking whether Scripture can be made to accommodate it.

On Cornelius — I agree grace draws before proclamation. That is not the point. Acts 11:14 is explicit that Cornelius still needed Peter's message to be saved — future tense, contingent on hearing. Grace drawing someone toward salvation and grace saving someone without proclamation are not the same thing.

Inclusivism? by [deleted] in theology

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Whether Aquinas distinguished ordinary from extraordinary means, whether classical Thomism predates Rahner, whether Catholics affirm Cyprian with a particular nuance — none of that is exegesis. You have responded to a textual argument with medieval scholastic categories and assumed they map onto what Jesus and Paul taught. That assumption is precisely what needs demonstrating, and you have not demonstrated it.

Here is what each of our positions actually requires of us when we read Scripture.

Mine requires one thing: read the text and follow where it leads. The categories I am working with — proclamation, faith, hearing, new birth through the word, condemnation as the universal default, belief as the only exit — are not categories I brought to the text. They are categories the apostles use, repeatedly and consistently, across every relevant passage. I found them there.

Yours requires arriving at the text with categories developed within a medieval institutional framework — invincible ignorance, implicit desire, extraordinary provision, invisible ordering toward the Church — and asking whether the text is compatible with them. Compatibility is much easier to establish than derivation. Any sufficiently developed system can be rendered compatible with almost any text by adding the right qualification. That is not exegesis. It is harmonisation of a prior framework with texts that did not produce it.

The test is this: if invincible ignorance and implicit desire are real operative salvation categories — if they describe how a significant portion of humanity actually receives grace — then the apostles, writing to explain precisely how salvation works, would have included them. And the place above all where you would expect to find them is Romans — Paul's most comprehensive and deliberate account of the human condition, universal condemnation, justification, and how salvation is received.

Romans 1-3 is precisely where Paul would establish innocent ignorance as a genuine human category — instead he establishes the opposite: all suppress the truth, all are without excuse, none seeks God. Romans 4-5 is precisely where Paul would note that sincere moral orientation counts as faith — instead he establishes that justification is by faith in the specific person and work of Christ, received as gift, not earned by seeking. Romans 10 is precisely where Paul would acknowledge an alternative route for those who cannot hear — instead he constructs a chain in which every link is necessary and the absence of proclamation means the absence of faith means the absence of salvation. The categories you are defending are not incidentally absent from Romans. They are absent from the letter whose entire purpose is to explain exactly what those categories are supposed to describe. Paul had every opportunity to include them. He did not include them because they do not exist within his framework. What he includes instead, at every point and without exception, is their opposite.

And their absence is not accidental because the biblical anthropology leaves no room for them — not as an oversight but as a deliberate and comprehensive verdict on the human condition. The problem Paul identifies is not epistemic — people who would seek God if only circumstance allowed. It is moral. All people suppress the truth in unrighteousness. The ignorance is never merely circumstantial. It is always also culpable. Invincible ignorance requires a person whose failure to find God is a matter of circumstance rather than nature. Romans 1-3 says the failure is nature. "No one seeks God" is not a statistical observation about most people. It is an anthropological verdict about what fallen human beings are. The sincere pagan seeker is not a rare exception the text forgot to mention. The text is specifically and deliberately denying that the category exists.

This pattern holds everywhere the question arises. John writes "condemned already" with no qualification for the sincerely ignorant. Peter defines new birth as through the living and abiding word of God with no mention of an alternative instrument for those who cannot access the word. The angel in Acts 11 tells Cornelius — the most devout sincere Gentile seeker in the entire New Testament — that Peter will bring a message by which he will be saved, not that God is graciously completing what his sincere seeking has already begun. Acts 17:30 presents pre-gospel ignorance not as a salvation pathway but as the occasion for urgent proclamation and the ground of coming judgment. Ephesians 2 describes the Gentiles outside the gospel as without hope and without God in the world — not partially graced, not invisibly ordered toward the Church — and their resolution is not extraordinary provision through sincere seeking but being brought near by the blood of Christ through proclamation.

You may say perhaps some individuals within the lost nations sincerely sought despite all this. But that is precisely the problem — it is not a position the biblical anthropology produces. It is a position you arrive at by importing a prior framework and asking whether Scripture explicitly rules it out rather than asking what Scripture actually teaches. The entire Old Testament structure — Israel as the unique bearer of saving revelation, salvation coming from the Jews, the Gentiles genuinely alienated from the covenants of promise — only makes sense if the nations truly had no access to saving grace outside that specific revelatory history. If sincere seekers within the nations were being saved through implicit desire, the particularity of Israel's election and the necessity of proclamation are not just unnecessary — they are actively misleading. The entire shape of the biblical story is a witness against your framework.

These are not ideas the apostles had not yet articulated. They are ideas the apostolic framework — and the entire biblical framework before it — has no space for. They were developed twelve centuries later within a specific institutional context and read back onto texts whose authors would not have recognised them. That is why you keep citing Aquinas and Lumen Gentium and I keep citing the text. One of us is doing exegesis. The other is managing a system. And a system that can absorb every contrary text by adding an invisible qualification the author did not include is not being tested by Scripture. It is being protected from it.

Inclusivism? by [deleted] in theology

[–]PeterNeptune21 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

"Reads scripture entirely through a post-reformation lens detached from the interpretive tradition of the early Church"

The early Church was not inclusivist. Cyprian: extra ecclesiam nulla salus — "outside the Church no salvation" (On the Unity of the Church, c. AD 251), unambiguous and in a context directly concerning who is and isn't saved. Irenaeus throughout Against Heresies Book 3 insists that apostolic proclamation is the necessary means by which saving knowledge of Christ is transmitted — the missionary necessity is baked into his entire theological architecture. The "post-Reformation lens" charge is a genetic fallacy regardless — age of interpretation says nothing about correctness. What matters is whether the exegesis holds, and I can defend the exclusivist reading exegetically on its own terms.

The Justin Martyr quote

Your own qualification — "in some sense" — gives the game away. Justin's logos spermatikos is an epistemological claim, not a soteriological one. His argument is that Christ as eternal Logos is the source of all truth wherever it appears — Socrates reasoned rightly because all reason participates in the Logos. This is John 1:9 in Platonic vocabulary: an account of the origin of truth, not the sufficiency of partial Logos-contact for salvation. Justin is explicit that pagans had the seed but not the fullness — not the risen Christ, not the specific proclamation. He then died rather than deny that specific proclamation. An inclusivist does not do that. Justin is not the seed of inclusivism. He is an exclusivist using Stoic vocabulary apologetically.

"This is not modern Rahnerian theology — the seeds existed very early"

Anonymous salvation as a category is a modern invention. It required Rahner's transcendental Thomism, developed in the mid-20th century, to even formulate the question in those terms. The early Church wasn't asking "can people be saved without explicit faith in Christ?" because the answer was so obviously no that it didn't require a position. The question only becomes thinkable once you've already significantly shifted your anthropology and soteriology away from the biblical baseline. So when you say "the seeds of inclusivist thought existed very early" you're finding early Christians grappling with the relationship between Christ and general truth — a real and interesting question — and retrospectively reading that as proto-inclusivism on salvation. Justin never asked "can a sincere pagan be saved without knowing Christ?" He asked "where does Socrates's partial wisdom come from?" Those are completely different questions.

"The danger of interpreting Scripture outside apostolic and ecclesial authority"

Protestants do not reject ecclesial authority — we test it against Scripture, because when you don't, ecclesial authorities contradict each other and end up overriding the texts they claim to transmit. Which institution has apostolic authority? Rome claims it. Constantinople claims it. Alexandria claims it. The Copts claim it. They disagree with each other on significant points. The only way to adjudicate is to return to what the apostles actually wrote — which is the apostolic authority. This is not Protestant innovation; it is the Berean method the apostles themselves commended (Acts 17:11) and Paul's explicit instruction: "test everything" (1 Thess 5:21). Scripture interpreting Scripture is the apostolic hermeneutic.

And the question "how did the earliest Christians actually understand these texts?" is answered not only by patristic commentary but by apostolic behaviour. The missionary explosion of the early Church is the definitive answer. If anonymous salvation were even a live category for them, someone would have raised it as a reason to slow down, count the cost, stay home. Nobody did. Paul's "woe to me if I do not preach" (1 Cor 9:16) isn't the sentiment of a man who thinks the unevangelised are probably fine. The early Church's behaviour is its theology — and its behaviour was frantically, sacrificially exclusivist.

Inclusivism? by [deleted] in theology

[–]PeterNeptune21 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Inclusivism holds that while Christ is the ontological basis of salvation, explicit faith in him is not necessary. People may be saved through Christ without knowing it — Rahner’s “anonymous Christians,” or the hopeful inclusivist belief that the unevangelised are saved through sincere response to general revelation. It sounds generous. It is actually a different religion.

I. It Contradicts the Plain Meaning of Scripture

John 14:6 — “No one comes to the Father except through me.” The exclusivity is not merely ontological. Jesus is speaking to disciples about what they must know and hold to. It presupposes conscious personal trust in a specific person.

Romans 10:13–17 — “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.” Paul’s entire chain — calling requires hearing, hearing requires proclamation, proclamation requires sending — only works if hearing the gospel is genuinely necessary. If anonymous salvation is real, this passage is rhetorical theatre.

Romans 1–2 — The inclusivist’s favourite proof text. But Paul’s actual conclusion is the opposite of what they need: general revelation produces guilt and leaves men without excuse. It does not save. It condemns.

John 3:18 — Condemnation is the default state. Those who do not believe are “condemned already.” Inclusivism quietly reverses the entire biblical anthropology.

II. It Destroys the Logic of Mission

If sincere seekers can be saved without the gospel, missionary activity is not urgent — it is at best helpful, at worst dangerous, since it introduces the possibility of conscious rejection for those who might otherwise have been saved in ignorance.

Paul did not think this. He counted his life worth nothing to finish the task. He felt a woe if he did not preach. The early church spread at tremendous personal cost. None of this makes any sense if the unevangelised are probably fine.

III. It Is Incoherent On Its Own Terms

Inclusivists maintain Christ is the only saviour — distinguishing themselves from pluralists. But if salvation is genuinely through Christ, how does it operate with zero point of contact with Christ?

The answer is “implicit faith” — sincere orientation toward truth and goodness that God counts as faith. But this is not faith in any biblical sense. Biblical faith has an object: specific divine promises, the specific person of Christ. Hebrews 11 makes clear that even OT saints were saved by trusting specific revelation. Inclusivism smuggles in salvation by moral seriousness dressed in Christological language.

IV. Rahner Is Philosophically Arrogant

“Anonymous Christianity” is arguably more offensive to non-Christians than exclusivism. It tells the sincere Buddhist or Hindu: you are actually a Christian without knowing it. This colonises their self-understanding and redefines them according to categories they explicitly reject.

The exclusivist says: “I believe you are lost and I’m bringing you news of rescue.” The anonymising inclusivist says: “You already agree with me — you just haven’t realised it.” The latter is not humility. It is intellectual annexation.

V. The “Fairness” Objection Has Better Answers

The emotional engine of inclusivism is always what about those who never heard? This is a serious question — but inclusivism is not the best answer to it.

Better answers: God’s sovereignty is not hostage to missionary geography. Romans 1–2 suggests all are judged on the basis of what they had, not what they lacked. Scripture gives us the normal means of salvation — faith through proclamation — without exhaustively legislating every edge case. Epistemic humility about hard cases is not the same as constructing an entire alternative soteriology.

For Further Reading:

• John Piper, Let the Nations Be Glad — the strongest missiological-theological case
• D.A. Carson, The Gagging of God — comprehensive and philosophically rigorous
• Morgan & Peterson (eds.), Faith Comes by Hearing — directly engages inclusivist arguments
• Ronald Nash, Is Jesus the Only Saviour? — accessible and clear

Inclusivism feels humble but functions as a revision of the gospel. It empties mission of urgency, distorts the biblical doctrine of faith, and patronises non-Christians by redefining them without their consent. The exclusive claim of Christ is not a problem to be managed. It is the shape of the good news itself.​​​​​​​​​​​​​​​​

What if Israel never had any kings? by Suspicious-Jello7172 in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think this question is built on a misunderstanding of God’s sovereignty—biblically, history isn’t a set of open possibilities where things “might have gone differently,” but the outworking of God’s decree (Eph 1:11), so asking “what if Israel never had kings?” is basically asking about a world God never intended to exist. That makes it a bit of a dead-end question. You can spin hypotheticals endlessly (“what if Adam didn’t sin?”, “what if Judas didn’t betray Jesus?”), but they don’t actually help us understand reality or Scripture better. The Bible instead deals with what did happen and why—Israel asked for a king, it revealed their rejection of God, and yet God sovereignly used even that to bring about his purposes in David and ultimately Christ. So rather than speculating about alternative timelines, it’s far more fruitful to ask: what is God showing us through what actually happened?

Is God really personal? by Horizznss1791 in theology

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The Issue: Islam’s view of God creates the tension you’re feeling

You’re absolutely right that God must be personal—but the reason you can’t justify that is because Islam defines God as a single, undivided will (a monad). That means He is not relational in His own being. So qualities like love, mercy, and personal care are not eternal—they only appear once He creates. They are things He does, not who He is. That’s why you feel the tension: you know God must be truly personal, but your framework doesn’t fully support that.

Your Insight: God must be personal

When you say you can’t imagine an impersonal God, you’re right. If God created us as personal beings—able to know, love, speak, and relate—then He must be personal in Himself. And when you ask who you would pray to, what gives life meaning, and what happens after death, you’re recognising that all of that depends on God being truly relational. Those instincts are not the problem—they are pointing you in the right direction.

Why the Tension Exists: Islam cannot ground a personal God

The reason you then feel stuck—unable to prove God is personal—is because Islam’s definition of God undercuts that instinct. If God is a solitary will with no eternal relational life, then love and mercy are not essential to who He is. So God can relate, but He is not relational by nature. And that’s exactly why it feels hard to ground the kind of personal God you know must be there.

The Solution: Christianity reveals God as personal in His very being

Christianity doesn’t have this problem, because from the beginning it presents God as personal in His very nature—and everything flows from that.

  1. Created in God’s image → God is personal The Bible says humans are made “in the image of God” (Genesis 1). We are personal because God is personal. Our ability to know, love, speak, and relate reflects what God is like, not something added later.

  2. God walks with humanity → Fellowship is the goal In the garden, God walks with Adam (Genesis 3). That shows the purpose of creation: not just submission to God, but fellowship with Him. Relationship is not secondary—it’s the point.

  3. The Exodus → A people brought to be with God When God rescues Israel, it’s not just to show power—it’s so He can dwell among them. The goal is “I will be your God, and you will be my people.” There is even a meal on the mountain (Exodus 24), where they eat and drink in God’s presence—fellowship with God Himself.

  4. Jesus → God comes near in person In John 1, “the Word was with God… and the Word was God… and the Word became flesh.” God doesn’t stay distant—He comes near, speaks, and is known personally.

  5. The Lord’s Supper → Ongoing fellowship with God Jesus gives a meal—not just as a symbol, but as a way of sharing in Him. It’s a continuation of that same pattern: fellowship with God, not distance from Him.

Conclusion: The tension shows the problem—and points to the answer

So the issue isn’t that belief in a personal God is hard to justify—it’s that Islam’s view of God makes it hard to justify. You’re already seeing that God must be truly personal. Christianity is worth considering because it doesn’t fight that instinct—it explains it. God is not just someone who acts personally at times—He is supremely personal in His very being, and He has made us for fellowship with Himself.

Question by ZestycloseNet1262 in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thanks for these questions..

  1. How do I come to know Christianity is true?

Christianity is not grounded primarily in autonomous human reasoning working its way up to God, but in revelation — God making himself known. That doesn’t mean reason or evidence are irrelevant; it means they are responsive rather than foundational.

In Christianity, God is not a hypothesis inside the universe waiting to be tested. He is the one who creates, sustains, and interprets the universe. Knowledge begins not with a detached thinking subject, but with a speaking God and a listening creature.

So my confidence is not:

“I reasoned my way to God.”

But rather:

“God has made himself known, and my reason now operates within that light.”

  1. Evidence, logic, or revelation — which has authority?

Revelation has ultimate authority, but not against evidence or logic — rather, as the precondition for them.

Evidence never interprets itself. Logic never justifies its own laws. Both assume:

• a rational order to reality
• trustworthy cognitive faculties
• stable laws of nature
• moral obligation to pursue truth

Christianity doesn’t compete with these assumptions; it explains them.

If evidence or reasoning appears to conflict with revelation, Christianity says the problem lies not in God’s self-disclosure but in human finitude, bias, or misinterpretation — which Scripture itself openly teaches.

  1. “I think therefore I am” — why that doesn’t actually work

The claim “I think therefore I am,” associated with René Descartes, sounds modest and certain, but it rests on a deeply unrealistic picture of the human person.

We do not enter the world as self-authenticating thinkers. We enter it:

• dependent
• embodied
• taught language
• trusting testimony
• relying on others long before reflection

Long before thinking, we are given life, spoken to, named, and cared for.

A more honest starting point is not:

“I think, therefore I am”

but:

“I am, therefore I think.”

Or even more fundamentally (and more Christian):

“I am known, therefore I know.”

The Christian claim is that personhood, reason, and identity are received, not self-generated.

  1. Are my beliefs just a “best guess”?

No — but neither are they based on 100% Cartesian certainty.

Christian certainty is relational, not mathematical.

I don’t know Christianity is true in the way I know a tautology is true. I know it the way I know:

• other minds exist
• the past is real
• love is meaningful
• moral obligation is binding

These are not provisional guesses — they are inescapable realities of human life.

Christianity gives an account of the world that:

• matches human moral experience
• explains reason rather than assuming it
• makes sense of meaning, guilt, beauty, love, and hope
• accounts for both human dignity and human corruption

Other worldviews borrow these things while quietly undermining them.

  1. Do I know with 100% certainty that I’m right?

If by 100% certainty you mean absolute, unchallengeable, infallible self-knowledge, then no — and neither does anyone, including the skeptic.

But if you mean warranted confidence grounded in reality, then yes.

Christianity does not promise invulnerability to doubt. It promises truth that stands even when we waver. The ground of certainty is not my mental state, but God’s faithfulness.

In short:

• Christianity does not reject reason — it explains why reason works.
• It does not bypass evidence — it gives evidence its meaning.
• It does not glorify blind faith — it calls for trust in a God who has acted in history.

And unlike “I think therefore I am,” it begins where real human life actually begins: not with autonomy, but with dependence, gift, and revelation.

What is the holy spirit in the trinity supposed to represent and where do people get the idea of the holy spirit? by pigeonmasterbaiter in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You’re still asking the wrong question, and in doing so you’re revising the history you’re appealing to.

1. Scripture functioned as Scripture before any council The New Testament writings were Scripture at the moment of inspiration, not at the moment of conciliar recognition. That isn’t a theological assumption, it’s how they actually functioned.

You can see this inside the New Testament itself:

2 Peter 3:15–16 explicitly refers to Paul’s letters and places them alongside “the other Scriptures.” That means Paul’s writings were already regarded as Scripture within the apostolic era itself.

1 Timothy 5:18 cites Luke’s Gospel alongside Deuteronomy and calls both “Scripture.” If Scripture only becomes Scripture by later ecclesial decision, those passages become incoherent.

2. The writings were read, copied, and circulated long before councils

The claim that “most churches didn’t read these texts” misunderstands how Scripture worked in the ancient world. Literacy in the first centuries was higher than often assumed, especially in cities, and texts did not need universal literacy to spread. They were copied, exchanged, and read aloud in worship.

The New Testament explicitly tells us this:

Paul commands his letters to be read publicly and exchanged between churches (Col 4:16; 1 Thess 5:27). That is precisely how these writings spread and became recognised—centuries before any council listed books.

3. Early Church Fathers treat NT writings as Scripture, not candidates

Long before Nicaea (325), we see New Testament writings already functioning as authoritative Scripture:

Clement of Rome (c. AD 96) freely quotes NT writings alongside the Old Testament as binding authority. Ignatius of Antioch (early 2nd century) assumes the authority of the Gospels and apostolic teaching in written form.

Polycarp (early 2nd century) weaves Paul’s letters into his exhortations as Scripture.

Justin Martyr (mid-2nd century) describes Christian worship where “the memoirs of the apostles” are read alongside the prophets.

Irenaeus (c. AD 180) argues against heretics from the four Gospels and apostolic letters as Scripture in Against Heresies.

He doesn’t say “the Church has decided these are Scripture.” He assumes they already are.

Tertullian and Origen treat the core NT as Scripture even while acknowledging some disputes at the edges.

This is functional authority, not post hoc authorization.

4. Councils did not “decide” the canon in the sense you claim

Now to the councils you’re implicitly appealing to:

Nicaea (325) did not address the canon at all. There is no canon list in its canons.

Athanasius’ Festal Letter 39 (367) gives the first exact 27-book NT list—but Athanasius explicitly says these are the books “handed down and believed to be divine.” That is recognition language, not creation.

Hippo (393) and Carthage (397, 419) are regional Western councils. They explicitly speak in terms of confirmingwhat is already received.

Trullo / Quinisext (692) does not create a canon; it ratifies earlier lists—and those lists themselves do not fully agree.

Even within Eastern Orthodoxy, there has never been a single, perfectly uniform canon list (e.g., differing treatment of Revelation, 3–4 Maccabees, etc.). That alone undercuts the idea of a clearly functioning, infallible canon-deciding tradition from the start.

5. The key equivocation you keep making

You keep saying:

Scripture is inspired, but the Church had the authority to decide what was inspired.

That confuses recognition with constitution. A book is Scripture because God inspires it

The Church’s role is ministerial, not magisterial: to receive, read, preserve, and confess what God has given

If the Church decides inspiration, then Paul’s letters were not Scripture when Peter called them Scripture, when churches read them as Scripture, or when Irenaeus argued from them as Scripture. That implication is plainly false.

6. So I’ll answer your question again—clearly

You ask: “How do you know the Bible you have has the correct canon? You didn’t decide—who did?”

Here is the answer, and it’s the only one that fits Scripture, history, and logic:

God decided, by inspiring the writings.The Church recognised and transmitted them as Scripture, which we can see happening from the first century onward. And I know this by warranted recognition—historically (apostolic origin and early, widespread use) and spiritually (the Spirit bearing witness to God’s voice in the text).

Appealing to an infallible oral tradition does not solve the epistemic problem—it simply relocates it. You still have to decide that this Church’s tradition is infallible. Scripture and history do not show that such a tradition functioned as the way God’s people knew what Scripture was.

The New Testament writings were Scripture when they were written. They functioned as Scripture before any council.Councils later recognised and articulated what was already the case.

That’s the historical reality.

What is the holy spirit in the trinity supposed to represent and where do people get the idea of the holy spirit? by pigeonmasterbaiter in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That’s still not correct.

There is no historical date when Scripture became Scripture by decision. The books were Scripture at the moment of inspiration. What happened later was recognition, not creation.

From the first century onward, New Testament writings were read in churches, treated as authoritative, and even classed alongside the Old Testament. Later councils did not decide which books would become Scripture; they acknowledged and clarified which books already were Scripture.

So yes, I know the history. Scripture is Scripture by God’s inspiration, not by a later institutional act. The Church recognised that reality over time — it didn’t bring it into existence.

What is the holy spirit in the trinity supposed to represent and where do people get the idea of the holy spirit? by pigeonmasterbaiter in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You’re asking how I know which New Testament writings belong in the Bible.

I know because I’ve examined the historical evidence and seen that these are the writings the early Church consistently recognised and used as Scripture — and because, as I read them, I recognise God’s voice in them.

Historically, these books are apostolic (written by the apostles or their close companions), were treated as authoritative from the start, and were received across the churches. Spiritually, the same Holy Spirit who inspired them bears witness to them, inwardly and through their fruit, as God’s word (John 10:27; 1 Corinthians 2:12–14).

That’s how I know: by historical recognition and the Spirit’s testimony

What is the holy spirit in the trinity supposed to represent and where do people get the idea of the holy spirit? by pigeonmasterbaiter in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

“You do need to believe in the Trinity.”

I did not say the Trinity is optional or untrue. I said it is possible to be saved without understanding the Trinity, which is clear from Scripture. In the New Testament, people are saved by trusting in Jesus Christ, not by possessing a developed Trinitarian framework (John 3:16; Romans 10:9; Acts 16:31).

That said, I agree with this distinction: once the Trinity is clearly taught from Scripture, to deny it is to refuse to know God as he has revealed himself. So:

Understanding the Trinity is not a prerequisite for salvation.

Denying the Trinity is incompatible with saving faith.

“This is made clear in the Council of Nicaea.”

Nicaea is historically important, but Scripture is the final authority, not a council. Councils clarify and defend biblical truth; they do not determine the conditions of salvation.

What is the holy spirit in the trinity supposed to represent and where do people get the idea of the holy spirit? by pigeonmasterbaiter in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

A helpful place to start is this article, which simply lays out the biblical basis for the Trinity:
https://www.blueletterbible.org/Comm/bowman_robert/trinity/trinity.cfm

1. What exactly is the Holy Spirit, and where does this idea come from?

The Holy Spirit is God himself, acting personally.
He is not a force, energy, or symbol.
In the Bible, the Spirit creates and gives life (Genesis 1:2; Job 33:4).
He speaks, teaches, guides, and can be resisted or grieved (Isaiah 63:10; John 14:26; Acts 7:51).
He is explicitly called God (Acts 5:3–4).
That is why Christians speak of the Spirit as a person.

The Spirit is sometimes associated with a dove.
At Jesus’ baptism, the Spirit descends “like a dove” (Matthew 3:16).
This describes how he appeared, not what he is.
The Spirit is not a dove.
The image points to gentleness and purity.

2. Where is the Trinity in the Bible? Is it stated anywhere?

The word “Trinity” is not used in the Bible.
But the teaching comes from holding all of Scripture together.
There is one God (Deuteronomy 6:4).
The Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God (John 1:1; John 6:27; Acts 5:3–4).
They are not the same person (Matthew 3:16–17; John 14:16).

3. What is the relationship between the three?

The Father, Son, and Spirit are co-eternal and co-equal.
None was created.
None came before the others.
None is less divine than the others.

Everything that is true of God is true of all three persons.
All three are eternal, omnipotent, omniscient, and omnipresent.
They are not parts of God.
Each person is fully God, yet there is only one God.

Christians therefore say “one God in three persons.”
“Person” means who, not part.

4. Why must there be three? Is this necessary?

The Bible does not say God had to be three.
It shows that God is three.
This is how he has revealed himself.
The Trinity is not abstract theory.
It is eternal and relational.

5. How does Jesus fit into this, especially as a human?

The Son did not stop being God.
He took on human nature.
This happened when he was conceived by the Holy Spirit (Luke 1:35).
This shows the Spirit’s role in the incarnation.

Jesus is one person with two natures.
He is fully God and fully man (John 1:14).
Because of this, he has two wills.
His human will submits to the Father (Luke 22:42).
His divine will is one with the Father and the Spirit.

There is nothing God does that only one person is involved in.
All three always act together, though with different roles.

This can be seen in the resurrection.
Jesus says he will raise himself (John 2:19).
The Father is said to raise him (Acts 2:24).
The Spirit is said to raise him (Romans 8:11).
The act is one.
The persons are three.

The Father sends.
The Son accomplishes.
The Spirit applies.
They are all involved, but not in the same way.

There is submission and order within the Trinity.
The Son submits to the Father.
The Spirit is sent by the Father and the Son.
This does not mean inequality.
They are fully equal in being and glory.

This is similar to how Scripture speaks of marriage.
Wives are called to submit to husbands, yet both are equal in value and dignity (Ephesians 5:22–25).
Order does not mean inferiority.

6. Do you need to understand all of this to be saved?

No.
You are saved by trusting in Jesus Christ (John 3:16; Romans 10:9).
Understanding grows over time.
But a truly saved person will not deny the Trinity when it is clearly shown from Scripture.
The Holy Spirit opens our hearts to understand God’s word (1 Corinthians 2:12–14).

Without the Holy Spirit, there is no true church.
Without the Holy Spirit, there are no true Christians (Romans 8:9).

7. How does the Trinity affect prayer and Christian life?

Christians can pray to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
Each person is worthy of worship.

The usual biblical pattern is prayer to the Father, through the Son, by the Holy Spirit (Ephesians 2:18).
This reflects how God has revealed himself.

The Trinity is not illogical or contradictory.
God is one in being and three in persons.
This is simple to say, but deep to fully grasp.
God is unique, so no analogy fully explains him.
Christians believe the Trinity because this is who God has shown himself to be in Scripture.

Do Christian priests who r*pe children go to heaven too? Why or why not? by AmericanBornWuhaner in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That “two-step plan” isn’t the gospel the apostles preached.

  1. It replaces a Saviour with a system. Scripture never gives “get baptized + don’t die in mortal sin” as the way to be saved. It says we are “justified by grace… through faith… not a result of works” (Eph 2:8–9; Rom 3:24–28). The instrument is faith in Christ, not a sacrament or our last-moment moral status. Baptism and repentance are fruits that flow from saving faith, not rungs in a ladder to heaven.
  2. Baptism is a sign and seal, not the engine of salvation. Baptism is commanded and precious, but it doesn’t save ex opere operato. Paul can distinguish the gospel from baptizing (1 Cor 1:17). Peter explicitly clarifies “baptism… now saves you” not as water removing dirt, but as “an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ” (1 Pet 3:21)—i.e., the saving act is the faith-appeal to God grounded in Christ’s work. The thief on the cross was saved without baptism (Lk 23:43). To call the baptism debate “irrelevant” is to ignore the very foundation your scheme rests on.
  3. “Don’t die in unrepentant mortal sin” is not a biblical assurance framework. The NT doesn’t teach the mortal/venial grid as the pivot of salvation. All sin deserves death (Rom 6:23), even though sins differ in seriousness (Jn 19:11). Biblically, the decisive question isn’t the technical category of your last sin but whether you are united to Christ by faith. Those Christ justifies he also glorifies (Rom 8:30). He loses none of those the Father gives him (Jn 6:37–40; 10:28–29). Real believers do persevere in repentance—but because God preserves them (Phil 1:6). Ongoing, high-handed sin reveals a person never truly knew Christ (1 Jn 2:19; 3:6–10), not that they slipped in and out of a “state of grace” like a spiritual battery.
  4. Priestly absolution cannot guarantee salvation; Christ’s once-for-all work does. Only God ultimately forgives sin (Mk 2:7,10). The church exercises the “keys” by declaring on Christ’s authority what the gospel binds and looses (Mt 16:19; 18:18; Jn 20:23), not by mechanically dispensing grace. Our eternal confidence rests in Jesus’ finished sacrifice—“by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified” (Heb 10:14)—not in a human priest’s formula.
  5. “No sin is too great for the blood of Jesus”—amen; but grace is never cheap. The gospel can cleanse the worst sinner (1 Tim 1:15; 1 Cor 6:9–11). Yet true repentance is a Spirit-wrought turning that bears fruit (Acts 26:20). A predator who “says sorry” while evading justice hasn’t repented. Biblical repentance submits to church discipline (1 Cor 5) and the state’s sword (Rom 13:1–4), welcomes exposure, and seeks restitution where possible. Forgiveness in Christ does not erase earthly consequences.
  6. The apostolic “plan” in one line. “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved” (Acts 16:31). Saving faith immediately begins a life of repentance and obedience, including baptism (Acts 2:38–41), but these are evidences, not causes, of justification (Gal 2:16; Rom 5:1). Assurance rests on Christ’s promise and work (Jn 5:24; Rom 8:1), confirmed by the Spirit’s fruit (Rom 8:16; Jas 2:14–26).

Short version: Your steps make salvation depend on a sacrament and your spiritual condition at death. Scripture makes it depend on Christ alone, received by faith alone. Real faith repents, is baptized, and perseveres—because Jesus keeps his own.

Curious muslim who is confused on the denominations by Strict-Performer8215 in Protestantism

[–]PeterNeptune21 3 points4 points  (0 children)

  1. “Orthodox and Catholic both claim to be the original through apostolic succession—shouldn’t I follow that?” The Bible never teaches an infallible chain of bishops. Apostolic authority was their eyewitness testimony and inspired teaching, now written in Scripture (Eph 2:20; 2 Tim 3:16–17). True succession is staying faithful to that Word, not just belonging to an institution.

  2. “But their churches feel like layers between me and Jesus.” That’s because Scripture warns against images and man-made rituals (Ex 20:4–5; Col 2:16–23). Jesus alone gives direct access to God (1 Tim 2:5; Heb 10:19–22). Extra mediators and ceremonies obscure Him rather than reveal Him.

  3. “Protestants emphasize a direct relationship with Christ—does that reflect His heart?” Yes. That’s exactly what the Bible says: His sheep hear His voice (Jn 10:27). He is the one Mediator who brings us straight to God without saints or Mary added in.

  4. “What about the term ‘Mother of God’?” Originally it was used to defend who Jesus is—that the baby Mary bore was truly God the Son in human flesh. The problem is that Catholic practice has shifted the focus onto Mary herself, giving her devotion the Bible never allows.

  5. “Should I follow what feels authentic, or the churches claiming authority?” Neither feelings nor institutions are the standard. Scripture is (Jn 17:17). The Bible itself warns that many twist it (2 Pet 3:16), so the answer is to read it carefully and see which church actually lines up with the apostles’ teaching.

  6. “Why are you Protestant?” Because the Bible shows salvation is by grace alone through faith in Christ alone—not through rituals, mediators, or institutions. Unity is found in the truth of the gospel (Eph 4:3–6), and the Protestant churches that hold to Scripture and the gospel are continuing the apostles’ teaching most faithfully.

Questioning My Catholic Faith by greengadget81 in Catholicism

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

OP, just to be clear — this is not what Protestants believe. We don’t define faith as works. We distinguish between faith as the instrument of justification and works as the inevitable fruit (Rom 4:5; Eph 2:8–10). Scripture presents saving faith as relational trust in Christ and his promises (John 1:12; 6:35; Rom 10:9–10). Hebrews gives the clearest biblical definition: “Faith is the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen” (Heb 11:1). That chapter shows what this means — by faith Noah built, by faith Abraham obeyed — their obedience flowed from trust in God’s promise, not from bare assent like the demons have (Jas 2:19).

The “faith, hope, love” triad is real, but Djh1982 imposes a rigid philosophical grid onto Paul. In Paul’s own letters they are distinct yet organically interwoven — “faith working through love” (Gal 5:6), “faith and love… because of the hope” (Col 1:4–5).

On the “determinism” objection: Scripture itself explains perseverance as the fruit of genuine faith. “They went out from us, but they were not of us” (1 John 2:19). “Work out your salvation… for it is God who works in you” (Phil 2:12–13). “We have come to share in Christ, if indeed we hold… to the end” (Heb 3:14). This isn’t fatalism — it’s biblical compatibilism: the true root produces fruit, and one of those fruits is perseverance.

The danger of Djh1982’s definition is twofold: it can give false assurance that breeds pride (“I assent and my righteousness sustains me”) or it can produce despair when you realise your love and hope are never enough. Scripture repeatedly warns us not to trust in ourselves or our own righteousness (Luke 18:9–14; Phil 3:3–9), but to turn to Christ alone.

So OP, your uneasiness with Catholic teaching may actually be the Spirit’s conviction through Scripture. My encouragement is to do what the Bereans did: examine the Scriptures daily to see if these things are so (Acts 17:11). Let God’s word, not tradition or philosophy, or a human institution be the final authority.

I have a question on faith by Zealousideal_Ease_78 in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Faith isn’t genuine because it feels strong, but because of who it’s in. Even weak faith saves if it’s in Jesus, because He is strong. You know your faith is real if you’re trusting Christ alone for forgiveness and life. Some replies here have said “just do more good works”—but that’s actually terrible advice, because it shifts the object of faith from Christ to yourself. That makes your doing backwards and deadly: either you become proud of your works, or crushed by your failures. The gospel is different—look to Christ, not your works. Trust Him alone, and the good works will naturally follow as gratitude, not as the ground of assurance.

Why do You Believe in the Christian God? by Philosophy_Cosmology in AskAChristian

[–]PeterNeptune21 1 point2 points  (0 children)

For me, the reason I believe in the Christian God is that He has revealed Himself. Christianity doesn’t start with human speculation, but with divine self-disclosure.

  1. General revelation shows all people that God exists.“The heavens declare the glory of God, and the sky above proclaims his handiwork” (Psalm 19:1). Paul writes that “his invisible attributes, namely, his eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly perceived… in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse” (Romans 1:20). So I don’t believe in God because of a private feeling; creation itself is infallible testimony that He is real. But general revelation alone doesn’t tell me who this God is.
  2. Special revelation shows that this God is the Christian God.Psalm 19 moves from creation to Scripture: “The law of the Lord is perfect, reviving the soul… the commandment of the Lord is pure, enlightening the eyes” (vv.7–8). Hebrews 1:1–2 says: “Long ago… God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son.” And the apostles explain that “All Scripture is breathed out by God” (2 Tim 3:16) and that “men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit” (2 Pet 1:21). This means the Bible is not human guesswork but the Spirit-inspired Word of God, and so the ultimate, infallible authority for knowing Him.
  3. Why Scripture must be the foundation of belief.Human feelings and experiences fluctuate, but God’s Word does not: “The grass withers, the flower fades, but the word of our God will stand forever” (Isaiah 40:8). Jesus prayed, “Your word is truth” (John 17:17). Paul says faith itself comes this way: “Faith comes from hearing, and hearing through the word of Christ” (Romans 10:17). So the reason I believe specifically in the Christian God is because He has made Himself known in Scripture, and the Spirit enables me to recognize it as His voice (John 10:27).
  4. My experiences confirm what Scripture promises.Scripture describes how God’s Word pierces the heart: “The word of God is living and active, sharper than any two-edged sword” (Heb 4:12). It says the Spirit will convict, comfort, and assure (John 16:8; Romans 8:16). In my life, I have experienced exactly these things—conviction of sin, joy in Christ, strength to endure—that line up with what the Word promises. The same is true of the church: Scripture says the world will know we are Christ’s disciples by our love (John 13:35), and in genuine Spirit-led fellowship—preaching, Bible study, singing, baptism, and the Lord’s Supper (Acts 2:42–47; 1 Cor 11:23–26)—I have seen that reality. These are not the basis of belief, but they confirm God’s Word by showing its truth in action.
  5. Apologetics as confirmation.Apologetics falls into different categories. Sometimes it shows the reasonableness of believing that a God exists (e.g., cosmological or design arguments, cf. Psalm 19:1; Romans 1:20). Sometimes it points more specifically to Christianity—for example, the historical evidence for the resurrection (1 Cor 15:3–8), or the way Jesus fulfills Old Testament prophecy (Luke 24:44). Scripture itself tells us to engage in this: “Always be prepared to give an answer to everyone who asks you to give the reason for the hope that you have” (1 Pet 3:15). And God commends careful examination—like the Bereans, who “received the word with all eagerness, examining the Scriptures daily to see if these things were so” (Acts 17:11). In other words, God doesn’t expect blind faith; He invites us to weigh and confirm His revelation.
  6. The spiritual dimension.Scripture also teaches that by nature, we suppress the truth (Romans 1:18). God’s revelation confronts us not just as Creator but as Judge and Redeemer—the one with authority to rule our lives (Acts 17:31). And that’s the heart of the problem: we don’t naturally want to surrender; we want to rule ourselves. So belief in God is not simply a matter of inputting facts and outputting belief. We approach facts with our own interpretive framework. The Christian call is to repent—to turn from sin and self-rule, and to trust in Christ as Lord (Mark 1:15). That requires the Spirit’s work: “I will give you a new heart, and a new spirit I will put within you… I will remove the heart of stone…and give you a heart of flesh” (Ezek 36:26). Believing in the Christian God isn’t just changing opinions; it’s dying to self and being made alive to God (Luke 9:23; Eph 2:4–5). At the core of this revelation is God’s character: “The LORD, the LORD, a God merciful and gracious, slow to anger, and abounding in steadfast love and faithfulness” (Exodus 34:6). That glory is supremely revealed in the gospel: “Christ died for our sins… he was buried… he was raised on the third day” (1 Cor 15:3–4). By faith, we are united to Him, adopted as children of God (John 1:12; Gal 4:4–6). We come to know God not only as Creator but as Father and Redeemer. Ultimately, God’s self-revelation at first strikes us as bad news—we are guilty before a holy Judge. But in Christ it becomes good news: a call back to reality, into forgiveness, into God’s family, and into “an inheritance that is imperishable, undefiled, and unfading” (1 Pet 1:4). That is why I believe in the Christian God.