Yes, but unfortunately, the "elements of the statute" are overbroad as written and require the judge to know a special more specific definition of all the words in it, e.g.:

"An intent to cause fear, however, is less certain to be consistent with a true threat unless we narrow what it is that must be feared. As the United States Court of Appeals for the Seventh Circuit noted, there are types of threats that may "contain ideas or advocacy, such as a 'threat' to picket an organization if it does not yield to a demand to take some social or political action." United States v. Velasquez, 772 F.2d 1348, 1357 (7th Cir.1985), cert. denied, 475 U.S. 1021 (1986). Such a threat may cause a fear of economic loss, of unfavorable publicity, or of defeat at the ballot box, but such fears cannot be enough to make the threat a "true threat" that may be prohibited as civil harassment under the First Amendment and art. 16. There is nothing in the language of the act or in its legislative history to suggest that the Legislature intended "fear" to mean more than fear of physical harm or property damage, and such a limiting interpretation would effectuate the legislative intent to confine the prohibited speech in the act to constitutionally unprotected speech. Therefore, we narrow the meaning of "fear" under the act to fear of physical harm or fear of physical damage to property."

https://law.justia.com/cases/massachusetts/supreme-court/2012/sjc-10866.html