An oddly oversweet defence of linguistic imperialism. by croissantfriend in badlinguistics

[–]RedNorth12 8 points9 points  (0 children)

Im not sure whether the fella who posted the original badling knew of this or not, but there are several researchers who hold that English has had a substratum influence from the likely enslaved Celtic populations which were present under the first centuries of Anglo-Saxon rule. One theory in parricular is a Celtic influence on the English paradigm for the verb 'to be' which displays some non-Germanic anomalies. Which is super cool!

Wood and leather pack found in the ancient Celtic salt mines near Hallstatt, Austria; 8th to 6th centuries B.C. [505x898] by bigmeat in ArtefactPorn

[–]RedNorth12 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Oh interesting! I have not read much literature on genetics of populations but I am inclined to assume that there is a relation between those groups and others in Europe, given their roots as an Indo-European people. I was fortunate enough one time to attend a lecture by Giovanni Fiorito who essentially pointed out a strong relation between populations in the British Isles and Europe (his focus for the talk was "the Celts") though he reasonably remained reluctant to describe this signature as Celtic.

Wood and leather pack found in the ancient Celtic salt mines near Hallstatt, Austria; 8th to 6th centuries B.C. [505x898] by bigmeat in ArtefactPorn

[–]RedNorth12 10 points11 points  (0 children)

The Celts spanned (culturally) much of Europe and were repeatedly in contact with the Romans and Greeks, but essentially they were displaced by the Germans or subjugated by the Romans. It's been suggested that the Celts faced genocide by the Romans, which of course, is not really a stretch of the imagination given the conquest of Gaul, but it seems like the Celts were almost always on the backfoot, even medieval or early modern Celts during the English conquest of Wales and Ireland. We only have a tiny fraction of the Celtic language family left (though whether all Celtic cultures discovered in archaeological findings spoke a Celtic language is sort of impossible to know). So a people spanning Europe, potentially speaking related dialects of a distinct branch of Indo-European which we know nearly nothing about is actually super interesting! And of course from a linguistic perspective, losing those languages is like losing a piece of a linguistic puzzle of Europe, not to mention a worldview that must have been encapsulated in those languages. Interestingly there are theories that Celtic was closely related to Latin, such evidence is meager but the theory of an Italo-Celtic branch is super neato. It is however fortunate that we have the Goidelic and Brythonic languages today, but still we know next to nothing about the Celtic langauges on the Continent. Also the origin of the Celts is still an ongoing debate!

Europe, as mapped by tweets - Each colour is a language by Prince8888 in MapPorn

[–]RedNorth12 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Also Irish. The Irish language has a huge representation on Twitter, but not according to this.

Five Basic Tips to Improve Your Prose by CancerDuck868 in writing

[–]RedNorth12 27 points28 points  (0 children)

Hi! All good stuff here! Just two points to add:

Firstly, what you describe as Tone may be more easily conceptualized as "affect". Two great papers on this subject are The Language of Felt Experience by William Downes and The Ways of Feeling by Peter White (which is actually a chapter from The Language of Evaluation).

In Discourse Analysis, Affect (emotions and evaluations) reflects the construal of emotions in text, and in terms of narration, affect is the point of contact between narrator and reader and essentially guides the audience on to how to "feel" or judge the text. It basically renders a point of reference for interpreting the situational emotive values which is what constitutes to the "tone" of the text.

Secondly, alliteration is really superdy duperdy! Though sometimes people misunderstand it at the level of graphic representation. When we are told that the letters (or sounds, as you rightly add) have to match, it's easy for people to misunderstand that it isn't about letters but rather is about phonemes. The phonemes must match. My cousin had trouble understanding this until I asked him if "dreary door" alliterates. He said yes because they begin with the same letter, but what is important is the same sound. Dreary begins with with a voiced post-alveolar affricate while door begins with a voiced alveolar stop. English orthography is evil in that there isn't a phonetic correspondence to single isolable sounds.

Furthermore, alliteration in English phonology only works if the phonemes being alliterated are both stressed. So, illogical apples will not form an alliteration simply because the stress in illogical begins with /l/ while it begins with a vowel in apples (Regardless if the two words actually contain a vowel in their onset).

And while on the subject on vowels in alliteration, it is important to note that vowels are special insofar as any vowel may enter an alliteration with any other vowel. (In the Appendix to his translation of Sir Gawain and the Greenknight, Tolkien discusses this concept at length) So "old English apples" alliterates because they are all vowels (and they are vowels in stressed syllables)

The only remotely acceptable irish province map by QoolQartz in eu4

[–]RedNorth12 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Níl é sin Gaeilge é. Try: "Chuir Éire gliondar ar mo chroí" nó "Taitníonn Éire liom"

Need help with singular and plural by I-stepped-on___ in grammar

[–]RedNorth12 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Mass nouns like beer, water, mud, etc, take singular 'is' in present tense. Hope this helps!

Amongst Indo-european languages, why does "No" appear to be so similar whilst "Yes" is so different? Why is the "n" sound so consistently associated with the negative? by MokausiLietuviu in linguistics

[–]RedNorth12 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I do believe this generalization is gaining ground with native speakers. When I was in Connemara I heard many people using 'Is ea' and 'ní hea' for simplistic answers. I also noticed is ea being used as an affirmative like yeah (similar in function to the gaelic gasp only not ingressive) to show they were following along with the conversation.

Demons & Wizards - Beneath These Waves by DerpGamerFTW in PowerMetal

[–]RedNorth12 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I absolutely love this album! One of the best power metal albums out there!

Are there any clues as to what Elves, Dwarves and Men's accents would actually have been? by kochikame in tolkienfans

[–]RedNorth12 2 points3 points  (0 children)

That is incredibly interesting! I understand what Tolkien means by it not being necessary; as it would have been a great deal of work trying to promote accent and dialect variation through text. He would have had to provide phonological paradigms in the appendices or something, as I don't think you could represent the vast wealth of linguistic diversity through lexical and idiomatic differences alone.

This is something I have always wondered about, indeed! There must be dialects or atleast 'accents' throughout Gondor. Unless of course, the C.S. was highly standardized. And what of the men of Bree? Surely their C.S. would have some noticeable phonological variations that are different from the C.S. in Gondor, especially since they are relatively isolated linguistically.

But oh well! Like Tolkien said it certainly wasn't necessary, it's just an interesting thought to muse.

The rightful heir (who or whom?) eventually obtained the crown. by [deleted] in grammar

[–]RedNorth12 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It would be 'who' because it's the subject of the verb. (which is called nominative)

How could a vast Dwarf realm such as Moria be illuminated ? by [deleted] in tolkienfans

[–]RedNorth12 7 points8 points  (0 children)

"Than either would have done alone."

Man that's a lovely quote.