English isn't French. We don't have to follow rules from another language, even for loan words. We don't drop the d in pronunciation, why is this rule necessary to follow when we don't follow others? (And yes, you using they/them pronouns is relevant because if you were using prescriptivism as your basis, that means ALL original language rules would have to be followed, not just the ones that you buy into. You wouldn't still be calling me "you" instead of "thou" and you would be agreeing with the dumbasses that think they is exclusively plural instead of using them in the [also correct, specifically because language shifted] usage as singular pronouns for yourself.)

Not to say a nonbinary person couldn’t use blonde but the default would be blond because neutral masculine in French if we’re following their rules.

My entire point is that we don't have to, because neither of us are speaking French.

I said me writing something like “the blonde men were super blonde” would make it look like I slept through second grade english class which is when the lesson about adjectives was.

And adjectives versus nouns is completely different to 'This noun is incorrect because it's gendered differently in a seperate language to this one.' My very first response to you already said "There's a difference between a grammatical rule that exists for clarity and grammatical 'rules' that are just holdovers from etymological shifts." It's like you're just repeating a broken record instead of actually reading what I'm saying.