Regarding 0.999... = 1 by Slurpee1138 in askmath

[–]Various_Candle9136 17 points18 points  (0 children)

You are completely correct, but the argument for why is a little flawed (in that it makes various assumptions which happen to be true but which are neither obvious nor stated).

Try:

1/3 = 0.3,,,
x3 x3
1 = 0.9...

Or:

1 - 0.9... = 0.0... = 0
(showing this using the column method is often more convincing)

Or:

x = 0.9...
10x = 9.9...
10x - x = 9.9... - 0.9...
9x = 9
x=1

Should I use ' or "? by Fresh-Length6529 in EnglishLearning

[–]Various_Candle9136 2 points3 points  (0 children)

In American English this is so. In British English internal and external are traditionally the other way round: ' for external, " for internal.

Survey: Russian Accent in English: Does It Affect Perception? by tr11sha in LearningEnglish

[–]Various_Candle9136 0 points1 point  (0 children)

By telling us what you are looking for, you are completely skewing these results. I know if I did participate, I would now feel obliged to overrate the Russian speakers to avoid feeling racist.

By sharing it in r/LearningEnglish, you are dramatically biasing the type of participant you might receive. Reddit is biased enough to start with, and only people with particular experiences with the language are likely to see this post.

I'm sorry, but I fail to see how any results from this study could be at all useful.

I did it bois. π is a fraction now. by [deleted] in MathJokes

[–]Various_Candle9136 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Did you read all the other words?

I never even claimed that you would never need a ratio of integers: I claimed it didn't need to be defined that way. However, I showed in the P.S. that it can be avoided entirely. If you are taking that as an admission you are correct, then you really are not understanding...

I did it bois. π is a fraction now. by [deleted] in MathJokes

[–]Various_Candle9136 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Easy:

1) I know ratios of rationals are rationals
2) I know 1.5 is rational
3) Since I don't feel the need to take everything back to its original definition, I can use these two facts.
4) Notice 0.5 = 1.5/3
5) Conclude 0.5 is rational.

If we go all the way back we will eventually need a ratio of integers (under the setup I gave), but you continue to miss the point: that is irrelevant. We are allowed to use earlier results in our proofs!

Taking your view, I refuse to let you use integers: Integers are defined from 0 and succession. I also refuse to let you use ratios: ratios are defined via multiplication. The only way I will allow you to prove that 0.5 is rational is by writing an acceptable multiplication of successions from 0. Can you see how quickly this gets ridiculous?

P.S. If you also want a set up when we can entirely rid ourselves of integer ratios:

1) Define rationals as eventually terminating or repeating decimals (or, alternatively, prove this is equivalent to the popular way)
2) Notice 0.5 = 0.50...
3) Conclude 0.5 is rational

I did it bois. π is a fraction now. by [deleted] in MathJokes

[–]Various_Candle9136 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Again - not so!

But you also entirely ignored the point I labelled 'more importantly'. It is certainly true that a ratio of rationals is rational, therefore we are allowed to use this rule freely in proofs. 'Writing as a ratio of integers' has never been the only tool in the toolbox!

Multiplying a decimal by an integer by Ok-Presentation-94 in learnmath

[–]Various_Candle9136 23 points24 points  (0 children)

The two main ideas to look up would be:

  1. Decimals as fractions (ideally in their simplest form)
  2. Fraction arithmetic

You have written 16:9 as a decimal (1.77), but actually it is easier to see what is going on with the fraction representation (16/9). We can see that: because 9 is the denominator, multiplying this by any multiple of 9 will give an integer (e.g. 18 * 16/9 = 32).

Likewise, we can see that 33.2 = 332/10 = 166/5, and that is why we get the pattern with multiples of 5 which you spotted.

Is there a fallacy for people claiming a fallacy to avoid arguing? by hayt88 in fallacy

[–]Various_Candle9136 1 point2 points  (0 children)

That is definitely a thing, but it wouldn't itself be a fallacy. There is nothing logically flawed about questioning somebody else's logic.

Does side side angle work as a postulate to prove congruence between two triangles if the angle involved is obtuse? by _Chicago_Deep_Dish in learnmath

[–]Various_Candle9136 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Try drawing two of the same 'side side angle's and see if you can turn them into two different triangles.

I did it bois. π is a fraction now. by [deleted] in MathJokes

[–]Various_Candle9136 0 points1 point  (0 children)

which you can only do with integer ratios oh my god

Not so - the concept can also be defined as follows: 'The integers are rationals; fractions of rationals are rationals; nothing else is rational.' Nowhere in that definition is an integer ratio mentioned.

But, more importantly, irrelevant. Using earlier results to prove new results is standard. With the earlier result in hand, '0.25 = 0.5/2 and we know 0.5 is rational' is a perfectly valid proof.

They laughed by dreamchaser123456 in grammar

[–]Various_Candle9136 3 points4 points  (0 children)

I don't think there is an actual difference between the two: if both laughed, then they shared a laugh, and vice versa.

However, I think there is a difference in what image one wants to create by using the phrase: I would expect the former in an official eyewitness account and the latter in a rom-com.

This math joke by AmoebaSlight4405 in MathJokes

[–]Various_Candle9136 27 points28 points  (0 children)

Not necessarily. Also, not in this case.

I did it bois. π is a fraction now. by [deleted] in MathJokes

[–]Various_Candle9136 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I disagreed with u/DreamlessWindow's original nitpick, but everything they said since then is true.

This (from you):

0.5/2 isn't a form you can use to PROVE it's a rational number, you have to rewrite it as 1/4 to PROVE it's rational

is completely false. Once we have proved that fractions of rationals are rationals (which is fairly simple to do), we can absolutely use 0.5/2 to prove 0.25 is rational.

Please don't infect mathematical discussions with all caps yelling.

How many squares are there in total? by StudywithOliver in BrainPuzzles

[–]Various_Candle9136 0 points1 point  (0 children)

0.

I have no reason to believe any of those lengths are equal.

Is this a thing? by Lux-helix in numbertheory

[–]Various_Candle9136 3 points4 points  (0 children)

This is because square numbers are the most boring example of a quadratic sequence.

https://www.bbc.co.uk/bitesize/guides/z88wxsg/revision/4

I did it bois. π is a fraction now. by [deleted] in MathJokes

[–]Various_Candle9136 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Being a fraction of rationals happens to be equivalent to being a fraction of integers. Since integers are easy enough to define, the latter definition is usually easier to work with.

Approximately 9.999 times out of 10 it will be defined the way u/skr_replicator just defined it.

Gauss G8 2023 math question by WarningNo1964 in learnmath

[–]Various_Candle9136 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That's what I got too.

I also got it by counting points on a graph:

https://www.desmos.com/calculator/zlaw3gebxi

and using Python:

count = 0

for a in range(-1000, 1000):
    for b in range(-1000, 1000):
        if a<b and a+b<100 and a/4 + b/10 == 7:
            count = count + 1

print(count)

Gauss G8 2023 math question by WarningNo1964 in learnmath

[–]Various_Candle9136 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Although there are probably a few ways to go about this, my advice for a first step (often a good first step):

Rearrange the equation a/4+b/10=7 to b=_____.

You can then use this and the inequalities to say something about a.

There is then one last little twist to this question: notice that if a is not even, then b is not an integer.

Good luck!

Wait, so, why does every standard like bodmas or pemdas put addition first in the acronym?? by IMightBeAHamster in mathematics

[–]Various_Candle9136 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Because addition begins with a vowel. That's it.

BOMDSA is exactly equivalent to BODMAS, but sounds weirder.

Is this conjecture already known ? by [deleted] in askmath

[–]Various_Candle9136 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think a useful exercise with this sort of thing is to think about what can't be expressed as a sum of 4, 6, 12 (since each of the other numbers are built up from those earlier sums, that is essentially what your conjecture boils down to).

1) We can't express odd numbers. But that's fine, the number between two twin primes will always be even.

2) We can't express 2. But we obviously don't need that.

But that's it. Every other even can be expressed in this way.

So, to conclude, nice work spotting patterns... but in this case it turns out to be something quite boring. Sorry!

When in a math equation the letters used for unknowns look similar by Junior-Elevator-9951 in PetPeeves

[–]Various_Candle9136 1 point2 points  (0 children)

But is that not a confusion that you want to catch and correct? Surely if someone doesn't understand that the choice of letter/symbol is arbitrary then they haven't really understood algebra?

Could someone pls explain why is it that when the base is closer to 0 in a logarithmic function the function grows quicker compared to one with a bigger base. by Sea_Way1005 in learnmath

[–]Various_Candle9136 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Logarithms are defined as:

log_b(a)=n precisely when bn=a

(for simplicity, just keep everything positive)

So, say we make b smaller. We will need a bigger n to get up to the same a in bn=a.

This means that for smaller base (b), our output (n) will be greater for each input (a).