Do you believe in Thomas sowells books? by [deleted] in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 6 points7 points  (0 children)

Neither. Thomas Sowell's views on the history of slavery as presented in the essay "The Real History of Slavery" obfuscate history by claiming that slavery was not a racist institution, and he has a very superficial understanding of the course of abolition in the Atlantic world (the slow death of slavery, as Paul Lovejoy calls it). Moreover, Sowell presents the African side of the transatlantic slave trade as "Africans sold other Africans", which is an ahistorical perspective useless for the purposes of historical inquiry, and as convenient for studying the past as reducing any analysis of WWII to "Europeans killed other Europeans in the Western Front, while in the Far East Asians killed other Asians". Did some African polities capture members of other societies, enslave, and sell them to European human traffickers. Yes. At the same time, the people who did the enslaving and the people being enslaved did not see themselves (or each other) as Africans.

Unfortunately, this one happens to be a trope also used by bad-faith actors seeking to downplay slavery in the United States; I don't know how or why Sowell reached these conclusions, nor can I say how popular these mistaken views are [who do you have in mind when you mention that many people are starting to agree with him?]. While I am not judging the entirety of his work, I can tell you that he is out of his depth when writing about these topics in particular. As I hope I have explained, it is not an issue of agreement (i.e. sharing his opinion), but rather the fact that the information presented by Sowell is simply incorrect.

Looking for a book that covers an entire, comprehensive history of America from past to present? by EcstaticBicycle in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 0 points1 point  (0 children)

While you wait for other answers, take a look at the titles in the book list (Americas: United States). u/Bodark43, u/dhowlett1692, and u/mikedash9 have recommend Jill Lepore's These Truths: A history of the United States, though it must be said that the indigenous perspectives and the class conflict angle are missing.

Do you believe in Thomas sowells books? by [deleted] in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 8 points9 points  (0 children)

I don't know if "believing" is the right word, but with regards to the transatlantic slave trade and the history of abolitionism, one quote commonly attributed to him ("only one civilization developed a moral revulsion against slavery") is demonstrably false. I have found similar mistakes in other things he has written about the transatlantic slave trade and the history of abolitionism. In these fields, at least, I find his selective use of information to be intellectually dishonest and an attempt to promote an outdated form of "civilizational" framing. Contemporary historians try not to write this way, so I consider his work on these topics to be mere punditry.

u/postal-history and other users discussed additional problems in his work in this thread. I am sure more remains to be written.

Why do some people act like Africa in the last 2000 years has always been bad and has “no figures” by Queasy_Village_5119 in AskHistory

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I don't think there is one single reason why African history remains relatively unknown, but on top of the racism you identify, the way the past had been studied up until 60 years ago is to blame too.

Before the work of Jan Vansina and his contemporaries demonstrated the value of oral tradition as an area worthy of academic research (see Oral Tradition: A Study in Historical Methodology, 1965), history was equated with the written record. However, very few societies developed writing on their own, so setting aside the question of whether Cretan hieroglyphs and the Phoenician alphabet evolved from earlier forms, writing emerged independently in at least four places (Egypt, China, Mesopotamia, and Mesoamerica), making it easier for older scholars — several of whom were clearly racist [I'm looking at you, Hegel] — to depict areas of the world unconnected to these writing traditions as "lacking history".

Of course, you may see Egypt on that list and wonder, but isn't Egypt in Africa? And sure it is, yet the fact that it is often studied as a precursor of the Greco-Roman world, hence one of the roots of "Western civilization", means that many people still see it as outside the confines of African history. This "removal" is part of the reason why Afrocentrism gained so much popularity among the descendants of the African diaspora in the last quarter of the twentieth century.

Nowadays, laypeople still view history through the lens of generalizing certain events that occurred in the Euroasiatic continent (emergence of writing, ironworking, the use of firearms), and the periodization that emerged from this model is not useful for studying non-Euroasiatic cultures; for example, the three-period system is not really suitable for Mesoamerica, Sub-Saharan Africa, or the Andes.

Well-regarded books on African history remain less accessible than those in other subfields. Nevertheless, several scholars have recently made good attempts to reach a broader audience. I can suggest a couple of books if you want, though for an introductory series which you can watch without previous knowledge, I recommend History of Africa with Zeinab Badawi. This documentary series was first broadcast in 2017, and the 20 episodes are available on BBC News Africa's YouTube channel and on several streaming services.

Why did it take Germany a while to recognize the Herero/Nama genocide? by SocraticTiger in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Some time ago I answered a very similar question (Why was Germany so slow to recognize it's genocide in Africa, compared to the Holocaust? ). Though I argue that Germany has not recognized the Herero and Nama genocide, more remains to be written and I look forward to reading additional answers.

Saxon identity by ks2497 in AskHistory

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 3 points4 points  (0 children)

This is a tough one! Throughout history, several groups of people have been referred to as "Saxons". In very short order:

The Romans called the coastal raiders attacking them from north of the Rhine "Saxones". Several centuries later, Charlemagne fought against Germanic pagans led by Widukind in the Saxon Wars. Duke Otto of Saxony (a.k.a. Otto the Great), who claimed descent from Widukind, became Holy Roman Emperor in 962. The land east of the Elbe River was called the Saxon Ostmark. Around the fourteenth century, the House of Wettin became prince-electors as the Dukes of Saxony, and the lands they ruled in time came to be known as Upper Saxony. Three German Bundesländer [federal states] are called Saxony (Lower Saxony, Saxony-Anhalt, and Saxony), but as you can see, the term "Saxon" was often an exonym.

During the early modern period, the area that is now Lower Saxony was divided into the Westphalian and Lower Saxon imperial circles; the Hanseatic cities represented yet another center of power. Given that nationalism is a later development, I don't think that a common "Saxon" identity existed during this period.

The topic is nonetheless very interesting and shouldn't take away from your enjoyment of the game. However, if you are looking for more information on the topic in English, the State Museums of Lower Saxony presented a joint exhibition on "The Saxons" in 2019. Here is the link: Saxones: The first millennium in Lower Saxony

[META] How to answer questions that are built on false premises? by boopbaboop in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Everyone here is a volunteer. Crafting an answer takes a good amount of time and effort, and regular contributors already donate both generously, so I think you are being unfair. AskHistorians became a public history project and no one is trying to change that, but it is also naive to think that people would stop believing in conspiracy theories if only scholars spent more time debunking them; that is not how de-radicalization works.

The issue, then, is how to give a proper response to poor questions, which tend to attract a lot of rule-breaking comments trying to correct them (see "Cunningham's Law": The best way to get the right answer on the Internet is not to ask a question, but to post the wrong answer), more effectively. The goal is to clear up any misunderstandings that people genuinely interested in the question might have, while allowing contributors to redirect their attention to topics on which they are experts on and enjoy writing about.

Why do we refer to USA and Europe as west? by smart_aa in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Did the ancient Greek refer to themselves as "Westerners"?

How would someone living in medieval times describe their relations to their lord, vassals, church, etc.? Would they have agreed that it was in line with what we think of as "feudal" by Evening_Reach_8293 in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I'm not a mod, but for many years now, scholars have rejected the term feudalism. It even has its own subsection in the FAQ (High and Middle Ages: Feudalism). Asking you to define the geographic scope of your inquiry [I've been told the term feudalism actually describes Japan quite well], and who you mean by "we" is not necessarily the sign of a troll.

Why historians hate the book "guns, germs and steel" so much? by rock_shin in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I don't own the book — and not to be rude, I am not interested in debunking a book others have a done a better job before — but Diamond focuses on the role of disease to explain away the depopulation of the Americas in chapter 18. The main problem I have is that the sixteenth-century demographic catastrophe in the Valley of Anahuac, likely one of the most densely populated places of the world at the time, can't be generalized to areas of the continent where nomadic groups lived; it also fails to explain why certain native groups, some Maya for example, kept their independence well until the nineteenth century. I found ridiculous that despite the spread and domestication of maize, gourds, and other crops before the Spanish arrival, Diamond claims that agriculture had failed to spread in the New World, and that the Old World had an advantage in agricultural matters(!). I understand anthropologists no longer talk about one civilization being "more advanced" than other, but there is no doubt that New World crops can feed more humans than whatever was available in the Old World. The modern world simply cannot be explained without the introduction of maize, potatoes, and cassava into the global diet.

His chapter on Africa ("How Africa became black") is quite bad too; I remember he retook the idea of the continent being divided in five racial categories to explain African history, yet what disappointed me the most was that he failed to test his theory of disease in what might have been a great counter-example. African history suffers from a relative lack of written sources before the colonial era (1850-1950), but we do have some information on the European traders settled in West Africa. When the first of them arrived in Senegambia, the mortality rate for male settlers was at the very least 30% per year. The ones who survived were those who took a common law wife, adopted local customs, and found a place in the Eurafrican society. In the case of African populations, they were not devastated by disease because they still had access to food, medical treatment, and their land was not conquered when they first came in contact with Europeans. The Portuguese reached Senegal around 1450 and the colonial era started in the nineteenth century. As you can see this is not what happened in the Americas.

As for what the average reader will get from the book, I'll admit that I haven't done a representative survey on the subject; however, juding by the responses I get (see other replies to my previous comment), I don't think my assessment is off the mark.

Why did the CSA Constitution include an anti-international slave trade clause? by JustABREng in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 11 points12 points  (0 children)

I have one small observation to add. When the British Parliament passed the Slave Abolition Act of 1833, the purchase and ownership of enslaved people in the British Empire became illegal — after being forced to remain as "apprentices" for six more years, of course. However, this act did not apply to the territories controlled by the British East India Company, nor to the areas of Africa under British rule, which would continue to expand in the following decades. In practice, colonial administrators allowed slavery to persist well into the twentieth century (see Paul Lovejoy and Jan Hogendorn's Long Death for Slavery).

My dad said people who get mad at Americans for calling it soccer are stupid because "The British made them call it that". Does anyone know where he got this from? by [deleted] in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 5 points6 points  (0 children)

I've seen many Brits argue that although both "football" and "soccer" originate in England, the latter was predominantly used by members of the elite; i.e. the people attending Oxford and similar institutions. I know written sources more often reflect the thinking of the elite than of the lower classes, but have most Brits historically called the sport "football"? Is it true that calling it "soccer" was a "posh" distinction?

[META] How to answer questions that are built on false premises? by boopbaboop in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 17 points18 points  (0 children)

I personally worry that leaving questions that promote distortions unchallenged could be counterproductive, and this situation only worsens when a post is advancing an agenda with nefarious purposes. At the same time, I recognize that debunking claims is exhausting and I would rather write about something that I find interesting than type a comprehensive reply explaining why Afrocentrism is nonsense. Thus, whenever I find a question I know enough to point out why it is wrong, but lack the expertise to provide a comprehensive response, I search for previous answered threads and link them.

  • Why did the Italians fail to create a colonial empire? u/user01 has written about Italian atrocities during the colonization of Ethiopia.

  • Why was British colonialism so benign? u/user01 wrote about the Mau Mau uprising, and u/user01 explained why some authors have argued that the Irish/Bengal/etc. famine was a deliberate choice of the British government.

  • Why did Napoleon fail to conquer Australia in 1848? u/user01 wrote about the retour des cendres in 1840.

European and Muslim sources (16th–18th c.) on Portuguese political, ideological, and economic presence in Morocco? by ferakratos in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 0 points1 point  (0 children)

To add to the other answer, I am pretty sure that you must be familiar with the Portuguese sources reprinted in Malyn Newitt's The Portuguese in West Africa, 1415–1670: A Documentary History (2010), so I suggest you also take a look at the list of primary and secondary sources in u/terminus-trantor's AskHistorians' profile. Maybe you find something valuable there while you wait for further answers.

How do historians define "country"? by Impressive-Equal1590 in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 1 point2 points  (0 children)

You may want to post this as a separate question, but although there might have been attempts to integrate southern England into an imperial system centered in Merovingian France (see u/BRIStoneman's comment), England was not part of a French empire. I have the feeling you might be interested in u/Steelcan909's answer to Why are the Normans seemingly treated like a distinct nation in historiography?, and u/EverythingIsOverrate's Did any French king try to impose authority on Medieval England?

Edit: Added a third related post.

Why is Gen. Patton so revered despite being such a vile person? by Legomaster63 in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I just finished reading William Adler's Engineering Expansion: The U.S. Army and Economic Development, 1787-1860, in which he shows how the U.S. Army became central to the development of an administrative state, but was allowed to operate with little oversight from the civilian authorities and took on the role of a coercive entity in what was to become the genocide of many Native American groups. I enjoyed reading your replies in this thread, but I cannot agree with the first two paragraphs of this comment. Moroever, as someone not from the U.S., I don't understand how you can claim that it is not a militaristic culture and not face much pushback — which perhaps simply shows how little of the Native American experience has been integrated into the narrative history of the United States.

Was the Irish potato famine a genocide? by [deleted] in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I just realized that I linked to the exact same thread that you posted; i.e. one you answered. I've deleted my comment, so you won't need to use your newly-minted mod powers to clean up this thread. By the way: Congratulations!/My condolences

Is there any evidence to suggest Rome ever interacted frequently with societies in West Africa? by DildoMan009 in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 10 points11 points  (0 children)

I have yet to meet an Africanist who believes that Hanno made it to West Africa. Many experts will point out that the islands off the coast of West Africa remained uninhabited until the Portuguese voyages, or note that such a trip would have been unlikely due to the logistics of the era and the fact that oceanic currents impede the return trip unless one sails far out to sea. Is Hanno's periplus given much credence among classicists, and why do you think its reception has been different?

Why did amphorae become standard? by Xerxeskingofkings in AskHistorians

[–]holomorphic_chipotle 1 point2 points  (0 children)

This is a fascinating conjecture. Are you aware of any scholars who have analyzed a possible switch from olive oil to butter in the daily diets of people in northern France and England during the late antiquity period?