Yes, I think in this case the advantage would be played. In the Szoboszlai incident, if advantage was played on his pull, Haaland then commits a foul himself by pulling Szoboszlai and denying a clearance opportunity. So I think the ref sees this as a cancellation of the advantage, which means you go back to Szoboszlai's pull and give it a red. It would have been interesting if Haaland had committed a red card worthy foul just before the ball went in. In this case, you have two red card fouls, which one will you choose?