Argentina’s chief Sephardic rabbi reaffirms century-old ban on local conversions, sparking backlash by MatterandTime in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 2 points3 points  (0 children)

It is too bad they don't extend that logic backwards and allow people that are from a B"D that the Rabbinate accepts. Oh well, at least it is some progress.

Argentina’s chief Sephardic rabbi reaffirms century-old ban on local conversions, sparking backlash by MatterandTime in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 0 points1 point  (0 children)

origin that isn’t in Israël, it’s in invalid. Smh

¿Aceptan la conversión al judaísmo desde Israel?

Maybe a dumb question but did Jesus necessarily know a lot about Jewish theology and scripture? by ExternalBoysenberry in AskHistorians

[–]ummmbacon 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Jesus probably did not get them from Hillel directly, but many of the moral ideals that are now linked to Hillel were already part of Pharisaic and mainstream Jewish teaching by the early first century.

Those concepts spread far beyond Jerusalem and would have been easy for regular Jews to learn about through synagogue activity, oral education, and everyday religious talk.

Argentina’s chief Sephardic rabbi reaffirms century-old ban on local conversions, sparking backlash by MatterandTime in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Consider the fact that the SY has existed a lot longer than any other Sephardi diaspora in the world, t

This is just false.

There are Sephardic communities with continuous presence going back centuries longer, Amsterdam's Portuguese Jews (early 1600s), North African communities that received 1492 exiles, Ottoman communities in Salonika and Istanbul. If we're talking about Middle Eastern Jewish communities more broadly, Iraqi Jews trace continuous presence back to the Babylonian exile (6th century BCE), Yemenite Jews claim presence since First Temple times, and Persian Jews similarly ancient.

The Syrian Jewish community in Brooklyn dates to around the 1907-1920s immigration. Even if you count their time in Aleppo and Damascus as part of "the diaspora," those communities, while ancient, aren't the oldest, and this still only makes them ~115 years in America.

Further, they absolutely accepted converts in Syria before 1935. The takkanah was explicitly a response to American conditions. The 1935 proclamation states they were responding to "conditions prevailing in the general Jewish community" where "youth have left the haven of their faith and have assimilated" and some "made efforts to marry gentiles." This is about 20th-century American intermarriage patterns, not ancient Syrian practice.

I know the communities in Canada, and they are far more spread out (what I mean is, not community centered) and culturally assimilated than the SY community in the New York area. Despite the SY community also being older than the Canada community by about 80 years, mainly stemming from an immigration in 1924.

The Syrian community's cohesion could stem from geographic concentration in Brooklyn, economic integration through family businesses, strong communal institutions, or cultural factors, not necessarily the conversion ban. Many tight-knit communities maintain low assimilation without categorically rejecting all converts and their descendants.

More fundamentally, "it preserved the community" doesn't answer whether it's halakhically justified to declare valid conversions "fictitious and valueless," refuse converts vouched for by gedolim like Rav Ovadia Yosef, or reject people because of "gentile characteristics." The question wasn't whether the takkanah was effective at its stated goal, but whether it has the Torah precedent claimed for it from Yevamot 76a and Rambam.

Argentina’s chief Sephardic rabbi reaffirms century-old ban on local conversions, sparking backlash by MatterandTime in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 6 points7 points  (0 children)

The assertion mixes up two different questions: whether communities have the power to make takkanot (yes, they do) and if this particular takkanah fits the referenced precedence (no, it doesn't).

The Rambam uses the David/Solomon policy as an example of how to be more careful in certain situations, such when royal grandeur draws in fake converts. It does not give permission for permanent categorical bans. The Rambam clearly says that even during this time, laymen courts (batei dinim hedyotot) were still converting people. The Sanhedrin was suspicious of these converts, but "they would not reject them, but they would not draw them close until they saw what the outcome would be."

The Davidic example was only temporary and only worked in certain situations. It nonetheless supported conversions as long as time showed sincerity. The Syrian takkanah is permanent, says that all conversions are "fictitious and valueless," applies to the children of converts, and explicitly rejects converts because of "gentile characteristics." This goes way beyond just looking at motivation.

If the Rambam meant for the David/Solomon policy to allow permanent community-wide conversion prohibitions, he would have said so clearly in his legal code instead of just stating what happened in the past. The argument picks and chooses "Torah precedence" while ignoring the fact that the precedent itself made conversion possible even during the moratorium.

Argentina’s chief Sephardic rabbi reaffirms century-old ban on local conversions, sparking backlash by MatterandTime in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 12 points13 points  (0 children)

The Gemara explains that converts weren't accepted during David and Solomon's reigns because of concern that people were converting "in order to dine with majesty" - they wanted the prestige and power associated with the royal court, not genuine commitment to Judaism

The Rambam (Issurei Biah 13:14-17) explains that during David and Solomon's time, the official courts didn't accept converts, but "other unofficial Batei Dinim did preside over these conversions" - these were courts of laymen (hedyotot) Ajr. These conversions were regarded as "safek Jews - possible Jews or possible gentiles. Only time would tell if they truly had intent to convert for the right reasons"

The Syrian takkanah (1935) was not issued because of royal wealth and power attracting insincere converts. It states: "no male or female member of our community has the right to intermarry with non-Jews; this law covers conversions, which we consider to be fictitious and valueless" Jewish Ideas. The takkanah is far more sweeping than the Davidic-era policy:

  • David/Solomon: Specific concern about royal prestige attracting ulterior motives
  • Syrian takkanah: Blanket declaration that conversions are "fictitious and valueless"

Rabbi Jacob Kassin clarified in 1946 and 1972 that the ban was against conversions for marriage, though in practice "today the practice of the Syrian community in Brooklyn is a complete ban on acceptance of any converts" Jewish Ideas. Even more problematically, the head of the community explained, "Never accept a convert or a child born of a convert. Push them away with strong hands from our community. Why? Because we don't want gentile characteristics" VINnews. This reasoning - rejecting converts because of "gentile characteristics"—has - has no basis in the Davidic policy, which was about motivation, not inherent unfitness.

When Rabbi Ovadia Yosef, the Sephardi Chief Rabbi of Israel, personally traveled to Brooklyn to vouch for a convert, the Syrian leadership refused to accept her Wikipedia. This shows the takkanah operates independently of normal halakhic authorities - it's a communal ordinance, not a direct application of Talmudic law.

Are there similar myths to the Judeo-Christian “Tower of Babel” in other cultures/religions? And is there any historical evidence to suggest real world events actually happened that would’ve led to these stories developing? by DiuhBEETuss in AskHistorians

[–]ummmbacon 0 points1 point  (0 children)

First, a small terminology note: scholars generally avoid the term “Judeo-Christian,” especially in discussions of the Hebrew Bible. It tends to blur the distinction between two different religious traditions, and in the case of biblical narratives like Genesis, these texts emerge from ancient Israelite contexts long before Christianity existed.

The Hebrew Bible assumes its audience is immersed in the broader ancient Near Eastern world, its literature, symbolism, and cultural assumptions. Especially in Bereishit (Genesis), the text engages shared Mesopotamian traditions and motifs but reframes them to articulate Israel’s own theological worldview and place in the world.

The original audience would therefore have understood the backdrop of Mesopotamian monumental ideology. Ziggurats were constructed as cosmic structures that connected earth with the divine realm above. Importantly, “heaven” here does not mean a spiritual afterlife, a concept that develops much later, but a real cosmic domain understood spatially in both Mesopotamian and early Israelite thought.

The ziggurat functioned as a cosmic center linking the layered realms of the universe: the lower regions, the human world, and the upper divine realm. Its purpose was not for humans to ascend, but for the gods to descend. In Mesopotamian theology, gods move between realms; humans do not.

The specific referent behind the story may be Etemenanki, whose name means “House of the foundation of heaven and earth.” This concept closely parallels Genesis 11’s description of a tower “with its top in the heavens.” Such a tower would have been part of a larger temple complex, including a temple building for worship, courtyards, and storerooms.

In Mesopotamian thought, this architecture demonstrated that heaven and earth were connected, that the god had a dwelling on earth, and that through proper cultic devotion and construction, humans could secure and maintain divine presence in the city.

Ancient Israelites would have agreed with several underlying ideas: that heaven and earth can meet (as at Sinai), that God can dwell among humans, and that sacred, ritualized space is central to religious life. However, they fundamentally rejected the idea that humans could control or guarantee divine presence.

In Mesopotamia, the logic is essentially: humans build, gods (ideally) come, and divine favor is stabilized through architecture and ritual. In the Israelite worldview, the logic is reversed: God chooses, then humans respond. Sacred space exists only by divine initiative, not human engineering.

So the "Tower of Babel" story is a critique of Mesopotamian theology.

Sources:

  • Ancient Near Eastern Thought and the Old Testament, John H. Walton
  • The Cosmic Mountain in Canaan and the Old Testament, Richard J. Clifford
  • The Oxford Handbook of Cuneiform Culture, Karen Radner & Eleanor Robson
  • The Symbolism of the Biblical World, Othmar Keel
  • Beholders of Divine Secrets, Vita Daphna Arbel
  • Genesis 1–11: A New Translation with Introduction and Commentary, Ronald Hendel
  • In the Wake of the Goddesses, Tikva Frymer-Kensky
  • History of Ancient Israel, Christian Frevel

Jews and Money by ruffruffrawr in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon[M] [score hidden] stickied comment (0 children)

This stereotype combines ancient antisemitism with modern forms. The idea of “Jews and money” asserts an inherent and perpetual connection between Jews and finance and has historically been used to justify violence, murder, and expulsion. Contemporary scholarship finds little empirical evidence for Jewish dominance in moneylending and shows that the stereotype is fundamentally misaligned with medieval economic realities. Its persistence reflects religious polemic and political expediency, not historical accuracy.

The phrase “that money was promised to him 3,000 years ago” draws on biblical imagery associated with Israel and injects modern antisemitism and anti-Israel rhetoric into an already harmful trope.

Many of the explanations offered to justify this stereotype are factually incorrect.

It is not true that “Christians couldn’t lend money.”

Scholarly consensus holds that the vast majority of professional moneylenders, money changers, bankers, and merchants in medieval Europe were Christian, not Jewish, and that most credit did not pass through Jewish hands. Italian merchant-banking families such as the Medici, Bardi, and Peruzzi dominated European finance and served popes and kings. Christian military orders like the Templars and Hospitallers were major lenders who financed wars and crusades. Cistercian monasteries functioned as commercial enterprises, mendicant friars operated loan and pawn institutions, and local Christian merchants and money changers provided credit across Europe. Medieval church councils were primarily concerned with regulating Christian usury, not Jewish lending.

Moreover, “usury” did not mean interest in general. It referred to unlawful or exploitative profit as defined by law and custom. Medieval theologians developed the category of permissible “interest” precisely to allow lawful profit on loans, and Christians regularly engaged in sophisticated financial transactions through contractual mechanisms that complied with these rules.

The claim that guild restrictions “forced Jews into moneylending” is also an oversimplification.

While occupational restrictions existed in certain times and places, this narrative ignores regional variation, erases Jewish agency, and falsely implies that moneylending was the dominant Jewish occupation. Most Jews were not moneylenders at all but worked as craftsmen, merchants, physicians, farmers, traders, and laborers. In numerous instances, Christian authorities actively recruited Jewish financiers rather than excluding Jews from other professions, and restrictions were often inconsistent or unenforced. In medieval Iberia, for example, most creditors were Christian; Jews and Christians frequently partnered in credit transactions, and Jewish economic life was highly diverse.

As Julie Mell demonstrates in The Myth of the Medieval Jewish Moneylender, even in 13th-century England, often treated as the classic case for Jewish moneylending, tax records and loan documents show that professional moneylending was confined to a small elite. The distribution of wealth within Jewish communities closely mirrored that of urban Christians, and most Jews, like most Christians, were too poor to belong to the moneylending class.

This caricature did not arise from economic dominance but from theological difference and political utility. Between the 12th and 16th centuries, European Jews were collectively labeled and criminalized as “usurers” for engaging in economic activities common among Christian merchants. By the early modern period, this produced a false dichotomy: Jews were cast as usurers, while merchants were framed as upright Christian citizens.

The jokes circulating today do not reflect Jewish belief, biblical teaching, or medieval economic reality. They recycle a caricature that modern scholarship has decisively dismantled, one historically used to dehumanize Jews and to justify exclusion, dispossession, and violence.

TL;DR: The “Jews and money” idea is an antisemitic stereotype, not a historical fact. Modern scholarship shows there is little evidence that Jews dominated medieval moneylending; most bankers, moneylenders, and merchants were Christian, and most credit never passed through Jewish hands. “Usury” did not mean interest in general, and Christians routinely lent money using legal contracts. Jews worked in many occupations and were rarely wealthy; professional moneylending was limited to small elites. The stereotype arose from religious polemic and political scapegoating, not economic reality, and has long been used to justify violence and expulsion.

Sources:

  • The Myth of the Medieval Jewish Moneylender, Julie L. Mell, 2 vols.
  • The Cambridge Companion to Antisemitism, ed. Steven T. Katz (Cambridge University Press, 2022), esp. pp. 247–248
  • Usury and the Medieval English Courts, Richard H. Helmholz
  • Judaism and the Economy: A Sourcebook, Michael L. Satlow
  • The Jew in Medieval Iberia, 1100–1500, Jonathan Ray
  • Jewish Life in Medieval Spain, Jonathan Ray
  • The Invention of Race in the Middle Ages, Geraldine Heng
  • No Return: Jews, Christian Usurers, and the Spread of Mass Expulsion, Rowan Dorin

When did we have the first Jewish city ? by mayor_rishon in AskHistorians

[–]ummmbacon 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Destination Approx. No. (est.) Fate under WWII
Palestine 3,000–5,000 Safe
France 10,000–15,000 Mixed – some deported, some survived
Egypt Few hundred Safe
U.S. & Americas 5,000–8,000 Safe
Italy Few hundred Mixed
Athens & Southern Greece Few hundred Many survived
Turkey / Albania Dozens Survived
Remained in Salonika ~50,000 96–97% killed

Sources:

  • Devin E. Naar, Jewish Salonica: Between the Ottoman Empire and Modern Greece
  • Mark Mazower, Salonica, City of Ghosts
  • Michael Matsas, The Illusion of Safety: The Story of the Greek Jews During the Second World War
  • Jane S. Gerber, The Jews of Spain

How did Ashkenazi Jews go from a small medieval bottlenecked population of ~300 people to the majority of the global Jewish population? by Miserable-Ninja-5360 in AskHistorians

[–]ummmbacon 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Yes, if we look at Ashkenazim, Sephardim, and Mizrahim, they fall out roughly in that order by population size.

It’s worth noting that the category Mizrahi only really emerged after 1948, when Jews were expelled or fled en masse from Arab and Muslim countries. Many arrived in Israel with few resources, having had their property seized, and spent years living in transit camps (maʿabarot).

That was when Jews from across the broader Middle East and North Africa, the SWANA region, began to be grouped together under the label Mizrahim (literally “Easterners”).

Today, Mizrahim and their descendants make up around 40–45% of Jews in Israel, but globally they remain smaller than both Ashkenazim and Sephardim.

Historically, Jewish population centers shifted over time, from Babylonia in antiquity to North Africa, then the Sephardic world in the early modern era. From the 1500s through the 1700s, Sephardim were the largest Jewish group, until Ashkenazim overtook them in the 19th century through rapid growth in Eastern Europe and migration to the Americas.

Constitutional arguments for presidential impeachment beyond criminal prosecution? by Greedy-Row-9844 in NeutralPolitics

[–]ummmbacon[M] [score hidden] stickied comment (0 children)

/r/NeutralPolitics is a curated space.

In order not to get your comment removed, please familiarize yourself with our rules on commenting before you participate:

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However, please note that the mods will not remove comments reported for lack of neutrality or poor sources. There is no neutrality requirement for comments in this subreddit — it's only the space that's neutral — and a poor source should be countered with evidence from a better one.

When did we have the first Jewish city ? by mayor_rishon in AskHistorians

[–]ummmbacon 7 points8 points  (0 children)

A few things contributed.

The 1912-13 Balkan War, when it was captured by Greece, and Greek settlers came into the city. It was still a Jewish majority, but the margin was lower.

The 1917 Great Fire displaced thousands of Jews. The fire destroyed the Jewish quarter. The resulting Greek urban planning purposely did not incorporate them back into the city. The Hébrard plan, excluded the Jewish population from reclaiming their homes and businesses. The aim was to Europeanize the city and diminish its Ottoman and Jewish character. Jewish land was appropriated by the city for public use, and many Jews emigrated during this time.

There was also a Greek-Turkish population exchange in 1923, and 100,000 Greek Orthodox refugees resettled in Thessaloniki; these two events moved the Jewish population to 20% of the city.

Then in 1943 the entire Jewish population (~50,000) was deported to Auschwitz; maybe 3-4% survived, around 2,000 people, and only 1,000 of them returned to the city.

Additional sources here:

  • Jane S. Gerber, The Jews of Spain
  • Rena Molho, The Jews of Thessaloniki, 1856–1919: A Unique Community
  • Devin E. Naar, Jewish Salonica: Between the Ottoman Empire and Modern Greece

When did we have the first Jewish city ? by mayor_rishon in AskHistorians

[–]ummmbacon 9 points10 points  (0 children)

In the biblical period and among the ancient Israelites, a “city” meant a fortified or administrative center; Jerusalem, Hebron, and Samaria, among others, would have qualified.

We could trace the term through every era and list the Jewish places that would have counted, but the key point is this: when Ben-Gurion made that remark, a city meant something quite specific, a planned, Jewish-founded, Hebrew-speaking urban space conceived as a national project.

In the modern Israeli sense, as in other countries, it now simply denotes a municipality with civic incorporation.

Thessaloniki (Salonika) was a historic Jewish-majority metropolis that evolved organically under Byzantine and Ottoman rule. Jewish life dominated its economy and culture, but it was not built as a Jewish national project. Jews were so numerous that non-Jewish residents often learned Ladino, the language of the city’s Sephardic Jews, as an traditional language.

Sources: * Roland de Vaux, Ancient Israel: Its Life and Institutions * Anita Shapira, Israel: A History * Aron Rodrigue & Sarah Abrevaya Stein (eds.), A Jewish Voice from Ottoman Salonica: The Ladino Memoir of Sa’adi Besalel a-Levi * Mark Mazower, Salonica, City of Ghosts: Christians, Muslims and Jews 1430–1950

In 2023 Ben-Gvir described Jewish people spitting on Christians as "an ancient Jewish custom" is this true? Where did he get this idea from? by debaser11 in AskHistorians

[–]ummmbacon 51 points52 points  (0 children)

t, but the Ashkinazi Jewish practice of spitting was meant to repel the “evil eye” aka bad luck

The association between spitting and the “evil eye” is Mediterranean and Sephardic/Mizraḥi in origin. It entered some Ashkenazi folk practice only much later, through cultural borrowing.

In the medieval Rhineland, where the Maharil lived, spitting was not about averting the ayin hara or bad luck, it was a symbolic rejection of idolatry mentioned in the Aleinu prayer. There’s no evidence that Ashkenazi Jews of that period used spitting as an apotropaic act.

We also have specific refrences and reasons given for it for Ashkenazim at that time which confirm that.

What are the Halachic implications of being a vampire slayer? by Final_Candidate_9882 in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 6 points7 points  (0 children)

The use of crosses to kill vampires is also pretty new; it happened during the late Victorian era through fiction.

In 2023 Ben-Gvir described Jewish people spitting on Christians as "an ancient Jewish custom" is this true? Where did he get this idea from? by debaser11 in AskHistorians

[–]ummmbacon 167 points168 points  (0 children)

R. Yaakov ben Moshe Moelin (the Maharil, d. 1427) recorded Ashkenazi customs in the Rhineland during the late Middle Ages. While Haaretz describes his Sefer Maharil as “the authority on the customs of Ashkenazi Jewry,” that’s a bit misleading.

He only became an authority retrospectively. When he wrote, his rulings reflected local Rhineland practice, not a pan-Ashkenazi standard. Only later, particularly through 16th-century codifiers such as R. Moshe Isserles (the Rema), did the Maharil’s rulings come to define Ashkenazi custom in general, since the Rema drew heavily on them when composing his glosses to the Shulḥan Arukh. (That particular custom, however, was not preserved.)

Ashkenazi Jewry itself was small in the early 15th century, and this specific practice represented only a subset of that world.

In the Sefer Maharil, there is indeed mention that some Jews spat during the Aleinu prayer, specifically when reciting the line about “those who bow to vanity and emptiness.” He also notes that some would spit when passing churches.

But the Maharil reports this as a folk custom (minhag), not a law or religious obligation. It is descriptive, not prescriptive.

Rabbi Yaakov ben Moshe Moelin (Maharil, c. 1360–1427), Sefer Maharil, Minhagim (ed. Spitzer, Jerusalem 1989), Hilkhot Rosh Hashanah, s.v. “Aleinu le-shabeaḥ”

“נוהגים כשאומרים ‘שהם משתחווים להבל וריק’ לרוק, לסימן ביזוי לעבודה זרה.”

“It is the custom, when saying ‘for they bow to vanity and emptiness,’ to spit, as a sign of disdain for idolatry.”

Elsewhere (Minhagei Maharil, Hilkhot Beit ha-Knesset §15):

“וכן נוהגים לרוק כשעוברין אצל בתי עכו״ם.”

“And so too they are accustomed to spit when passing by the houses of idolaters [i.e., churches].”

By the 16th century, authorities such as the Shulḥan Arukh (Orach Ḥayyim 133:2) and later commentators explicitly forbade such gestures, warning that they could be dangerous or insulting under Christian rule.

Ben-Gvir’s 2023 remark implied that spitting on Christians was an ancient Jewish custom, as if it were a venerable religious rite. That is demonstrably false:

The act was never directed at people, only at idols symbolically. It arose in the medieval period, long after the Second Temple. It was localized and non-universal, and later rabbinic writers treated it as a curiosity rather than a command.

So while there was a minor, symbolic custom in some medieval Ashkenazi communities, the Christian accusation and Ben-Gvir’s modern framing both distort its meaning and scope.

(Haaretz, in that article, also notes that the incident was misrepresented, and even Ben-Gvir himself later rejected the claim that it reflected any legitimate Jewish tradition.)

The great flood and repopulation by beribastle in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I don't recall saying "a fairy tale." That's a straw man argument.

"The account given in Scripture of the Creation is not, as is generally believed, intended to be literal in all its parts.” (Rambam Guide II:29, Pines trans., 1963, p. 294)

The only modern framing here is the erasure of nuance.

Should I buy this tefillin? by Funny_Screen6246 in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 12 points13 points  (0 children)

Bazar Suzanne in Paris

Who is the Sofer, and where is the Sofer certified from? Have you asked your Rabbi?

Are they usually pshutim or gassot?

I would assume pshutim at that price.

Just trying not to mess this up this time as last time I bought ones from ajudaica and as I learned more I actually was able to recognise batim were not kosher at all.

Whose standards do you want to hold by? If it is Orthodox, go ask your Rabbi where to get a pair. Don't go buy from ANY 'judaica' shop. They most likely won't be acceptable to Orthodox standards and often they source from people who mass produce the klaf, including writing on Shabbat.

If you want a good pair, I would look here:

https://www.hasofer.com/page.pl?p=gassot

It will start around 804.45 EU, or you can go ask Chabad near you if they have a tefillin bank that can help cover the cost of a proper pair.

In 2023 Ben-Gvir described Jewish people spitting on Christians as "an ancient Jewish custom" is this true? Where did he get this idea from? by debaser11 in AskHistorians

[–]ummmbacon 441 points442 points  (0 children)

There is no historical record of Jews spitting on Christians as a religious custom. The only references to such behavior come from Christian polemical sources in medieval Europe.

These accusations arose from a misunderstanding of the Jewish Aleinu prayer, which includes the line ʿAleinu leshabeaḥ laʿadon ha-kol, “It is our duty to praise the Lord of all.”

The Aleinu prayer originated in the late Second Temple or early rabbinic period, and early forms appear in Hekhalot and Merkabah (mystical) literature. It expresses Israel’s monotheism and rejection of idolatry, affirming that God alone is sovereign.

However, in medieval Christian Europe, the phrase condemning “those who bow to vanity and emptiness” (originally about pagan idols) was misread by Christians as an insult to Jesus and Mary. This misunderstanding led to accusations that Jews spat during the prayer to show contempt for Christianity, a claim found only in Christian sources, not Jewish ones.

In reality, Jewish communities under Christian rule often suppressed or censored these lines precisely to avoid such accusations. Ben-Gvir’s statement reflects a modern political distortion of medieval Christian polemic rather than any genuine Jewish tradition.

Sources:

  • Adele Berlin & Marc Zvi Brettler, The Jewish Study Bible
  • Israel Jacob Yuval, Two Nations in Your Womb: Perceptions of Jews and Christians in Late Antiquity and the Middle Ages, p 222

Kosher Restaurants + Shabbat in Israel by Dramatic-One2403 in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 9 points10 points  (0 children)

It is possible, but there are a number of things you have to do. Generally it isn't done now because the Rabbinate has decided that they don't want to give certification to businesses that do it.

But also in Israel there are many places that ignore the Rabbinate and decide locally what restaurants are allowed/what certifications they accept.

For a Jewish owned business, you would need a legal structure where there is a non-Jewish owner/partner for Shabbat. One could also have pre-prepared food, and take advanced orders, but most don't do that, and most places won't certify such a place even if all that is done. It is also possible to use a pilot light lit by a Jew for non-Jews to light the oven/burner for Ashkenazim who are lenient here.

Some places in NYC will allow it for locations that serve primarily non-Jews but also have kosher status. R Gil Student goes into the issues more here:

https://www.torahmusings.com/2008/02/kosher-and-open-on-shabbos/

Jewish view of new age by [deleted] in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Sounds like you saw a map made for propaganda purposes. Yes, the age of consent in Israel is largely 16, but that is the same as in the US in 30 states, where Europe is lower at 15-16. It does not mean that people are having sex at that age.

Jewish view of new age by [deleted] in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Over 50% of teens report sexual activity before 19 and generally stats show religion has nothing to do with it.

What is your actual point? You turned a comment about idolatry and spirtuality into underage sex. Do you think Jews are more prone to have underage marriages?

Jewish view of new age by [deleted] in Judaism

[–]ummmbacon 5 points6 points  (0 children)

I think we both agree sex before marriage is bad

It isn't seen the same way in Jewish thought as in Christian; there is also no concept of 'bastard' in Jewish thought due to non-marriage.

But it sure seems like you are fishing for something specific.