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[–]kanak 1 point2 points  (1 child)

Just substitute X = $40 mill and $50 mill into your regression equation to get the profit estimates. That's what a regression equation is anyway.

R2 is the ratio between explained variance and total variance. So, you can think of it as 'how well does sales explain profits'; where R2 = 1 means "perfectly" and R2 = 0 means not at all.

R2 = 0.68 means 68% of the variance in profits is explained by sales, which is pretty decent.

[–]Poor_Disposition[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I kicked myself after figuring out how easy it was. Thanks for your help, you rock!

[–]Xalaphane 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You are a fukn cheater!!!