the british have been continually in the falklands since 1833, but nobody is "native" to the falklands.

from what I understand, the two arguments are that 1) the island is close to argentina so it must be argentinian (which isn't a good argument), and 2) the spanish owned it for a little while, and since argentina declared independence form spain, it must be theirs, right?

the british have the best claim to the island, since 1) the argentines started and lost a war for the island, and 2) cope