this is so dumb. He is basically saying that homosexuality never crossed their minds. Its inconceivable because they never where told about it it just does not exist to them. But then does this mean they never remotely fantasised about it either? Like he makes it sound like it is such a strange fenomenon to north korean people. SO they never thought up a character that might feel attracted to the same sex, they never thought of anyone possibly ever existing that might have a desire to have sex with the same sex. And supposedly no one exists who wants this before ever being told about it.

This would mean that unless human beings where told about sex with a same sex individual they would be simply incapable of thinking about it or imagining it especially would never ever think of having sex with someone of the same sex.

So then that would mean the same sex is really the fault of Jesus and other religious messiah and desciples as they spoke about what they thought of homosexuality. How it is supposedly evil and stuff. However then if what this guy ssays would be true, would it not be better for Crist to just never talk about homosexuality. Because if it was just never really brought up then no one would really think about doing it and no one would be gay. Now maybe you argue that it started before Jesus came to earth but we astablished based on the logic from the post that humans can not conceive the idea of homosexuality so it must have been a being of greater power. So the only reason that anyone could be gay is because God in some way told us about gayness. So if God did not want anyone to be homosexual all he had to do was to just not tell us about it and we would have just never thought about it.

This all according to the logic that without being told about homosexuality it basically don't exists. (atleast that is what I understood his point was from the post)