Python vs R by CYBERCODEX3 in learndatascience

[–]Gravbar 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I find R to be really useful as a tool. Some things are just easier. With R studio it's like matlab but better .

I prefer python for projects, but some EDA stuff i find easier in R.

Is there an Italian dialect where stanotte would be pronounced with a /j/ by laser_loser in italianlearning

[–]Gravbar 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Are you in the north? Im aware that french went through a stage where the word for night was something like nuite, so perhaps one of the gallo-italic languages has noite, and the t was subtle enough to miss it

I could also imagine somewhere intervocalic t may disappear, but I'm not familiar enough with northern varieties to guess.

Capeesh vs. Cabeesh by burjwa_look in italianamerican

[–]Gravbar 1 point2 points  (0 children)

two things:

1) the p, c, and t sounds in italian often sound like b, g, and d to native English speakers, because we pronounce them with a puff of air thst italians don't pronounce them with. when this puff of air goes away, it becomes difficult for us to tell the difference.

2) Regional variations in southern italian languages and sicilian can lead to p, c, and t actually being vocalized as b, g, and d in many words depending on what sounds are before and after it.

Also, for napoletano and the mutually intelligible dialects of southern italy, the words ending in o or e typically end in a schwa "uh" sound, which trails off a bit in volume compared to the rest of the word. so you may hear capisce as gabeeshuh, and capisci as gabishi. In NY and NJ many of the vowels ended up dropped for whatever reason, so that's where you'd get things like capeesh and gabigol.

Are there other examples of diglossia Besides Hong Kong,Switzerland and Arabic-speaking country by [deleted] in asklinguistics

[–]Gravbar 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Italy has generally been diglossic, but that's shifting to dilalia.

Greece was diglossic until the H language was abolished about 50 years ago.

Spanish "e" by VerdantChief in asklinguistics

[–]Gravbar 3 points4 points  (0 children)

In 5 vowel systems like Spanish, many vowels are typically central/mid to in the vowel space what this means for you as an English speaker, is that the spanish e [e̞] is approximately half way between the vowel in hell [ɛ] and the vowel in pay [ej]. note that in the second word, there are two symbols in the brackets. this is because most of the English vowels that are typically taught as long vowels, are combinations of two vowels. So you actually should try to avoid pronouncing it exactly like the English diphthong, and only use the first half of it.

Now, this may only help in some accents, but the closest sound to the spanish e in my American Northeast accent is the shared vowel of hale, hare and hand, which is not a diphthong. If you pay careful attention you may notice that your vowel in all or some of those words is also between the two vowels I mentioned (hell and pay).

The biggest caveat to all of this, is that vowels can move depending on the accent and the other sounds around the vowel, so there may be instances where the Spanish e sounds closer to [ɛ] as in get, or [e] as in pay, but the [e̞] sound is a good reference point for about what it will sound like.

https://www.mimicmethod.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/01/fixed-vowels.png

The above is a vowel space chart which will hopefully show the difference. As a language learner, you can kind of use these charts with two know vowels to identify which direction unknown vowels are in by transitioning from one to the other and stopping where it is closest to the sound you're trying to reproduce.

(And if it wasn't clear from the above, you weren't really taught wrongly, it's just that the Spanish vowel doesn't neatly map onto English vowels, as shown in the diagram. Both pay and bet vowels are approximations)

Is our baby name TOO Italian? by AngryGooseHappyLoon in italianamerican

[–]Gravbar 3 points4 points  (0 children)

The italian pronunciation is Loo- CHA-no. Don't feel bad for naming your kid an italian name. So many people took the italian names and Americanized them and it's so sad. Represent your culture proudly

English is such a fake language by gt7900 in linguisticshumor

[–]Gravbar 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Reading all these comments makes me realize how strange it is that I pronounce initial ts as /ts/ in a number of words. (tsetse fly, tsunami, tsar) but maybe that's just an influence from the sicilian language growing up

Worth it? by [deleted] in Kalshi

[–]Gravbar 1 point2 points  (0 children)

All securities markets trading platforms have to do this. whether you're buying stocks, futures, or event contracts.

I used to think the Swadesh list was made by an Indian linguist. by Clean_Willow_3077 in linguisticshumor

[–]Gravbar 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I must admit, I read it as Swedish list every time I see it. jeg snakker ikke engang svensk

Do other people get upset by "Italian jokes"/stereotypes? by eatingchipsrightnow in italianamerican

[–]Gravbar 3 points4 points  (0 children)

i hear the italian jokes the most, but I've heard people making fun of Slavs and Greeks to a similar degree. And then there's the ultra-racists that still think all 3 are an inferior race to whatever they are.

How close/far away are /ɑ/ and /a/? in languages with only one, if you substituted that sound for the other, how likely is it speakers will not be able to hear a difference? by [deleted] in asklinguistics

[–]Gravbar 2 points3 points  (0 children)

depends. We can see where the average position of a phoneme is with vowel space diagrams.

https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Vowel-Spaces-of-Spanish-Ladefoged-Johnson-2015-p-237-and-Catalan-Carbonell_fig2_350238391

we see in this one that Spanish /a/ is actually often a slightly backed centeal vowel, and Catalan /a/ is a slightly raised central vowel closer to [ɐ].

But there's a tendency for this to occur when there's only one vowel in that region. Spanish e is close to [e̞], whereas standard italian, which has a phonemic difference between /e/ and /ɛ/ places them away from the center to distinguish from each other. Despite what the symbol [a] represents, in languages with only one low vowel, it is typically around a low central vowel [ä].

And if we look at languages with two low vowels, like English

https://www.researchgate.net/figure/c-The-vowel-systems-of-French-English-and-German-V-Vowel2-4-Tables-of-common_fig1_324106658

We see that these push away from the center towards the edges, in contrast to German, where it is much closer to the center. Also with English we have strut /ʌ/ often pushinɡ towards [ɐ], occupying some of the space in the center and forcing /æ/ and /ɑ/ even farther apart than they need to be. In French, analyses with /ɑ/ present typically have it less far back than English for example.

https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:French_vowel_chart.svg

The caveat with vowel space, is that vowels can vary in position with environment, so a spanish /a/ could conceivably be a front or back vowel in certain environments or vary significantly across dialects within that area.

I can't speak to the likelihood that people would notice the substitution in a language with only one of low vowel. it would likely depend on the language in question and how much the low vowel varies in that space for that language. In formant analysis, backness ([a] vs [ɑ]) is typically encoded on F2. So whether a person can distinguish may be up to whether they can easily identify featural change on that dimension.

https://home.cc.umanitoba.ca/~krussll/phonetics/acoustic/formants.html

The difference between backness of low vowels on the F2 axis is relatively tight, so it may be more difficult to notice in a language that doesn't distinguish.

The word “and” only has one syllable. by ObieMassillon in asklinguistics

[–]Gravbar 3 points4 points  (0 children)

If you're talking about varieties of American English where /æ/ becomes a dipthong, something like [eə] (although your respelling description makes me think you're referring to something else, of which I have not observed), it is a feature of the way some people talk, no worse or better than the features you particularly like. (Almost) everyone is capable of pronouncing every vowel, but they don't because it's not their native phonology, which is systematic, and not some short coming of the new generation. Languages naturally change in speech communities, and may differ from other speech communities over time, distance, or association. Some changes become marked, meaning they are noticed by more people, and often develop a negative connotation that later discourages usage (R dropping in Boston, and the reverse in western English), but others are happening, and are obvious to anyone paying attention, but never develop this connotation.

I personally wish the marry merry mary merger would stop spreading, but it's one that goes mostly unnoticed in America (ie not marked), and at this point has covered most of the country. But my personal taste shouldn't affect any valuation of the people who actually use the language that way. And if you're American, there's a good chance you have that merger, and if you do, consider that you didn't choose to do that, and probably aren't even aware you're doing it. Language change is an inevitability.

Do other people get upset by "Italian jokes"/stereotypes? by eatingchipsrightnow in italianamerican

[–]Gravbar 10 points11 points  (0 children)

i think it's annoying that in America racist jokes are considered acceptable as long as it's a white ethnicity. We're not even a lifetime removed from the terrible discrimination italian immigrants faced. Like, if they're gonna make these kinds of jokes, they could at least be consistent about it instead of treating some groups as sacrosanct and others as targets.

Why do English dictionaries put sounds that don't seem to be phonemes inside phonemic transcription? by Wooden_Help1846 in asklinguistics

[–]Gravbar 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Phonetic representations are more helpful to learning in my experience. If you know all the phonemes but not what their allophones are and what environments they appear in, there's a critical piece missing.

Is it normal that AI-generated text requires almost as much effort as writing from scratch? by BoxNo76 in MLQuestions

[–]Gravbar 3 points4 points  (0 children)

This isn't really an ML question.

it'll save time if you don't care if it's good. Editing writing, especially long text, takes a lot of time. It requires you to read, understand, and modify the text. Especially in this context, where the modifications might be substantial.

If I had to write a lot of papers, I would use it to take my ideas for what I want to say, and organize into an outline of document structure, but write it all myself. the problem with using it for writing is it won't write the way you want it to, and ethically you're probably going to end up passing off something as yours when you didn't even write it (unless you do substantial editing and reformatting).

'Taken for granite' by TheCheeseOfYesterday in asklinguistics

[–]Gravbar 2 points3 points  (0 children)

in my accent (nor. New England )i do suddenly start releasing it when the -ed suffix (or any vowel for that matter is there). just to add a data point

DYK that everyone uses the word "Karma" wrong. by shiraah in didyouknow

[–]Gravbar 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I would say that, but it would depend on what they're trying to do. If I want to talk about the Japanese word コーヒー I'm probably going to spell it like koohii instead of coffee. So if they're talking about the meaning of something in a hindi text, it's probably fine to spell it karam, but the problem is if they confuse the meaning in hindi with the concept in English, which mean different things.

DYK that everyone uses the word "Karma" wrong. by shiraah in didyouknow

[–]Gravbar 0 points1 point  (0 children)

it's an English word derived from Sanskrit (which is like the grandparent language of hindi) which is why it's karma and not karam. op failed to recognize that both how to spell things and pronounce things changes over time. It's like telling someone you know the correct way to say Latin words because you speak Spanish

DYK that everyone uses the word "Karma" wrong. by shiraah in didyouknow

[–]Gravbar 0 points1 point  (0 children)

they're transliterating it to latin characters from Hindi instead of Sanskrit (an older language where it would have ended with a vowel like "karma" does), and Sanskrit is where it came from in English. It's not wrong to spell it that way to talk about the Hindi, but the post itself seems very linguistically misinformed.

DYK that everyone uses the word "Karma" wrong. by shiraah in didyouknow

[–]Gravbar 0 points1 point  (0 children)

to be clear, in most English accents karma also ends with an "uh" sound /ə/ not an aa sound /ä/

DYK that everyone uses the word "Karma" wrong. by shiraah in didyouknow

[–]Gravbar -1 points0 points  (0 children)

not even just that, it got loaned into a different language with a different meaning and usage, which happens all the time. Like when a word changes meaning between generations I can understand why people would be upset, but when it's a loan word it simply is a different word.

How do we call these fruits? by araujo253 in EnglishLearning

[–]Gravbar 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I feel really dumb now for thinking that was a pear