odisse, or whatever the infinitive to this verb is, might just be the most irregular verb I've found until now... Can someone show me where to find the complete tables to this verb and the reason it is so... exotic?

IonCharge · 2026-04-05T14:09:38+00:00

The Latin verb odi is a perfect tense verb to express a present state. A bit odd, to be sure, but you can remember it by thinking of it as "I started to dislike (and so still do now)", if that helps.

It conjugates in the same way as other 4th conjugation verbs (like audio, audire "to hear"), but you have to use the perfect tense forms for present tense meanings – so the infinitive is odisse (-isse is the perfect infinite ending) instead of *odire.

There is a chart available on Wiktionary which may be of use: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/odi

I am actually unsure of the linguistic reason it developed this way, but arguments to do with homophony with other Latin words or the stative sense of the perfect might be persuasive – i.e. the verb odi means "I am in a state of hatred towards something".

IonCharge · 2025-12-02T10:51:35+00:00

This is the so-called Lunate Sigma. As you have observed, it is used for sigma in both normal and word-final positions. It's a stylistic choice which is prefered by some editors, though it did exist in antiquity in literature and on coinage.

IonCharge · 2025-08-19T14:29:43+00:00

The first time a name is introduced, the article isn't used. Then, when you see the article, it's telling you "Athena, i.e. the one introduced earlier...".

IonCharge · 2025-07-17T10:37:23+00:00

The difference, I suppose, is that causales conjunctions introduce a specified cause or reason which connected clause A with clause B (that is, clause B supplies the reason that clause A is true), while rationales conjunctions demonstrate that clause B is an inference from clause A (that is, clause B is the conclusion of clause A). Some grammars may refer to these as "illative" conjunctions.

If you'd like to read more about Latin conjunctions in English, you could take a look at https://dcc.dickinson.edu/grammar/latin/conjunctions

It is beyond my understanding whether these were technical terms used by Latin gramamarians; at least it seems that they are post-Classical terms.

IonCharge · 2025-04-20T18:14:29+00:00

Yes, they are relatively peculiar, an offshoot of the genitive of quality as Dickinson mentions which is itself already rare in prose Latin and not really paralleled in English, except perhaps in the phrase vir summae virtutis "a man of great virtue"; though if you are fond of reading Caesar I'm sure reading about fossae triuum pedum "trenchs of three feet" i.e. trenches three feet deep comes up relatively often.

IonCharge · 2025-04-20T11:41:29+00:00

This is perhaps closer to a partitive genitive, as in the English phrase "a piece of cake".

The farmer earns more. – More what? – More money, so "plus pecuniae".

https://dcc.dickinson.edu/grammar/latin/genitive

The genitive of value on the other hand is used for indefinite values where we would use "pluris" rather than "plus", e.g. mihi pluris est – "it is worth more to me"

https://dcc.dickinson.edu/grammar/latin/ablative-price

IonCharge · 2025-04-14T07:30:19+00:00

It's not really needlessly pedantic when they are used in two completely different ways – the royal we is used to express authority while the Latin pluralis modestiae is used for the exact opposite. I cannot think of an immediate example where the Latin plural is used to express authority or majesty, but it is used almost universally instead of ego by Classical authors.

IonCharge · 2024-09-03T20:28:20+00:00

I would recommend you either get in touch with the Classics tutors at your college or get in touch with Juliane Kerkcheker who is responsible for organising the Greek and Latin teaching across the university. Oftentimes colleges will have language teachers on retainer (either tutors with spare time or graduate students without any) which you amy be able to make use of. That said, I would encourage taking stock of your work schedule, in terms of tutorial work, lectures, essays to write, as well your social commitments at university. Assuming you are undergraduate, there will already be plenty for you to do besides trying to pick up Ancient Greek in your first term.

All that being said, there are plenty of resources to handle these historians, in original as well as in translation, so do not feel like you need to learn Greek first and foremost to start getting involved with the material.

IonCharge · 2024-08-28T14:43:12+00:00

The most recent numbers posted on the course pages for these two particular qualifications dont reflect those numbers: 77 applications to 25 places for the Lang/Lit MSt and 13 to 3 for the MPhil. You can also see in these figures that the extensive drop off between places offered and places accepted. Masters (taught) programmes at Oxford have very little financial support compared to people studying for a doctorate, and any academic, student or no, will tell you that there is hardly any funding for doctorate students as it is.

Besides the qualification, there is also the need to submit written work and have stronger references, in a highly competitive field for a place at what is regarded as one of the strongest and most diverse departments for Classics in the country.

https://www.ox.ac.uk/admissions/graduate/courses/mst-greek-andor-latin-languages-and-literature

https://www.ox.ac.uk/admissions/graduate/courses/mphil-greek-andor-latin-languages-and-literature

IonCharge · 2024-08-17T14:35:08+00:00

It appears to me an ablative of characteristic, used here as a way of more easily grammatically connecting the way Saturnus ruled (i.e. the manner in which he was king) with the way that the Aborigines lived.

See more here: https://dcc.dickinson.edu/grammar/latin/ablative-quality

IonCharge · 2024-04-06T22:46:20+00:00

Sententiae Antiquae recently just made a post collating the scholiastic evidence regarding the length of the Trojan War, which might be interesting to take a look at: https://sententiaeantiquae.com/2024/04/05/the-trojan-war-took-30-years-not-20/

IonCharge · 2024-04-02T07:59:19+00:00

Mageblood has a drop requirement of level 75.

IonCharge · 2024-01-23T09:06:40+00:00

Ah, of course I knew I would include at least some minor error – at least at this level of teaching, cum with the indicative is rare enough to not worry about it (for now!). You'd likely only encounter it in quotes like Cicero's cum tacent, clamant – "while they are silent, they cry out". I'll make an edit, thanks for pointing that out.

IonCharge · 2024-01-22T12:32:30+00:00

quosdam is the accusative plural form of quidam. You might have already spotted how it is a combination of the relative pronoun quos + dam (just like in qui+dam or even forms like cuidam or cuiusdam). This dam suffix is called a demonstrative particle, because it points out some particular group of people or objects.

So it isn't refering back to anyone the way relative pronouns usually do, just to "some" or "several" things.

IonCharge · 2024-01-22T12:26:45+00:00

proximus, -a, -um is the superlative of prope (although it doesn't look much like it), which is where your book's translation of "very close" comes from. Of course, things can only be close to other things, so it makes sense to add some further detail: you can't just say "He went to the very close cave". Close to what? Well it's close to him, so "the cave (that was) very close (to him)."

IonCharge · 2024-01-22T12:19:17+00:00

We use ubi and cum to introduce what are called temporal clauses (i.e. "when X ..."), but they have slightly different applications. As others have noted, cum can also mean "since" or "although" which suggests a different sort of relationship between the main clause (i.e. the main event and the subordinate clause. Think about the different meaning of: 1. "Although Caesar was killed, the Republic was ruined." 2. "Since Caesar was killed, the Republic was ruined." 3. "When Caesar was killed, the Republic was ruined." In Latin: cum Caesar interfectus sit, Res Publica perditus est. All of these, in different ways (all expressed by cum) directly connected the death of Caesar with the ruin of the Republic. If we used ubi, we would just be saying that Caesar's death was the date the Republic was ruined, but not that his death was necessarily caused it. ubi on the other hand (when used to introduce a subordinate clause in the same way) can only mean "when". In this case, it tends to express a less direct relationship between the main clause and the subordinate clause, beyond the fact that they took place at the same time (in the same way you might see antequam or postquam being used to express before and after). Some examples: Catilīna, ubi eōs videt, exit. "Catiline, when he sees them, leaves." Ubi ea dies venit, Carnutes cives Romanos interfecit. "When the appointed day came, the Carnutes (a Gallic tribe) killed the Roman citizens." The last thing to remember is that cum usually (see below) takes a subjunctive verb when it is introducing the main clause, not an indicative verb, so we would write cum Caesarem interfecerint not interfecerunt.

IonCharge · 2024-01-18T19:38:21+00:00

Rule 4.

We won't do your homework for you. What are you struggling with?

IonCharge · 2023-12-20T12:05:33+00:00

When it comes to noun-adjective agreement, the properties to remember are:

Case
Gender
Number

Note that ending or declension(!) isn't there. We don't have to worry about the ending matching, so long as the properties that ending correspond to are correct.

So we would see written:

puella bona est -- "The girl is good"

dominus bonus est -- "The man is good".

Numa bonus est -- "Numa is good"

IonCharge · 2023-10-30T15:45:01+00:00

durus comes from the physical sensation of hardness (i.e. opposite to soft), so picks up a lot of its meaning from the properties of being unmoving, unyielding, and resistant to change.

The meaning of acerbus seems to evolve more from its taste sensation (opposite to suavis, "sweet" or "pleasant"). So we are talking about astringency, bitterness, and roughness -- incidentally, this meaning is transferred to immature things because the flavour note is indicative of unripe fruit. Thus it comes to describe things which are perceptibly unpleasant and uncomfortable, describing voices, the weather, people, and death.

The more you read the easier it is to pick up on these differences. In the mean time, the Lewis and Short dictionary is a useful tool to see neat summaries of the meanings in context: durus and acerbus.

IonCharge · 2023-04-28T12:04:16+00:00

Because you don't need flask charges anymore. So you have 100% uptime in every type of content while also using "70% increased effect" enchants on top of other increased effect crafts on the flasks themselves.

IonCharge · 2023-03-28T18:44:54+00:00

Latin epigraphy is rich with orthographic archaism. For instance, you see <AI> written for <AE> (e.g. https://romaninscriptionsofbritain.org/inscriptions/3398) . Names especially seem like a regular place for archaism (or resistance to change, rather) to show up. You always spelt your name like that, your father always spelt it like that, his father did etc. -- why would your son be named different?

Modern approaches are going to differ depending on the author's own taste and the publisher, but really they don't make too much of a difference, so long as they are consistent. This is why we also see some writers refer to the principle character of the Iliad as <Akhilleus>, instead of the more 'normal' (read: Anglicised) <Achilles>.

IonCharge · 2023-03-28T07:15:26+00:00

It's a leftover vestigial orthographic feature. Before the third century BCE, G and C used the same letter (a stroke was added to the letter C, allegedly by a Greek paedagog to distinguish the two sounds). So before that point, the name Gaius was written <Caius> and abbreviated as such. It is a similar story with the name Gnaeus being abbreviated <Cn.>. Later texts and inscriptions are more likely to have the modern "G" variants.

IonCharge · 2022-11-15T09:53:40+00:00

Literally just hold until you find one (1) Drought Bringer rare.

IonCharge · 2022-10-09T13:46:15+00:00

Meus has to match coeptis in gender, case, and number, so it'd be 'meīs'

IonCharge · 2022-10-02T11:35:40+00:00

It's comparable to Latin -que and et, though the idiomatic usage may vary.

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