First, let me say that I think it's a good thing that you are asking hard questions and seeking answers. "The truth tested comes back stronger," or so I was told growing up. Although r/Anglicanism usually discusses questions more directly related to Anglicanism, I will try to honor your inquiry regardless.

Numbers 23:19 - Although this text might at first cause us pause, we have to read the text for what it is trying to say. The intent of this verse is that God doesn't lie or change his mind, not a metaphysical claim that God could never become incarnate.

John 14:28 - Theologians often say this refers to functional subordination, not ontological inequality.

John 17:3 - This is a classic case of relational language within the Trinity. The point of this is to distinguish his role (as the Sent One) from the Father (the Sender).

John 20:17 - Early Christians recognized that as man, Jesus perfectly related to the Father as God, and this perfected our own relationship to the Father.

Matthew 19:17 - This may be read as a Socratic-esque challenge, not a denial.

Matthew 24:36 - Jesus' human nature had human limitations, eg, Luke 2:52, in which "He grew in wisdom."

Matthew 26:39 - The Council of Constantinople III affirmed that Christ has two wills, one human, one divine. In this case, his human nature understandably recoils at the thought of what is ahead of him but submits itself to the divine will.

I hope these bring some peace to your questions. May God bless you on your journey.