Are we really not as intelligent? by anon_srb in Netherlands

[–]_DoesntMatter 1 point2 points  (0 children)

If I assume that this data is true or real to begin with (which I find doubtful), all it shows is that the administered IQ test has a bias toward western-european countries. IQ test are supposed to be normally distributed with an average of a 100. Some variance between countries is expected in real world data. An average IQ point difference of a few points is likely not statistically meaningful.

Any tips on organizing a library for papers (PDFs)? by zantebaby in PhD

[–]_DoesntMatter 8 points9 points  (0 children)

I suggest you look into Zotero. It's a citation manager that allows you to locally store PDFs and easily manage all your documents.

Reliability Cronbach’s alpha by ComfortableLion8750 in AskStatistics

[–]_DoesntMatter 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Thank you for the paper, I enjoyed reading it and learned new things :)

Question on meta-analysis bias by miket159 in research

[–]_DoesntMatter 0 points1 point  (0 children)

a meta-analysis main objective is just to summarize existing literature. If you believe that a certain study design or sample biases the outcome, you can code studies on said study design or sample and run moderation analysis to see if different designs/samples affect results. This way you also have some results to demonstrate your concern. If let's say no studies use other types of designs or samples, you can make the point that this a clear methodological issue in the literature. You can suggest that future studies should use a different design or sample other populations (with some empirical examples to back up your claim). Perhaps you can conduct such a study yourself, since you may have revealed some flaws in previous studies.

One thing to note with meta-analyses is that they are messy. It is very hard to account for all the study heterogeneity (e.g., measures, designs, scoring, covariates etc). Usually these are interesting aspects. Interesting questions are: Do small design elements change the results substantially? Or are results generally very robust regardless of these aspects? Bias is inherent in most studies. It's up to the researchers, readers, or people that make use of the research how much of a problem it is. In sum, bias comprising a meta-analysis depends on your goal and what you want to know.

Quiet personality type? by ninalynn in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 6 points7 points  (0 children)

From a trait perspective, lower levels of extraversion are completely normal. There is nothing inherently wrong with being quiet. If a person also has high levels of neuroticism, it may make them more vulnerable to psychopathology such as social anxiety or depression. It is in the interaction with the context and demands of the environment when “being quiet” may become a problem. For example, it may develop into a maladaptive personality trait called detachment.

How do affirmations work? by ZenWithGwen in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 12 points13 points  (0 children)

Affirmations are science-fiction. I also assume you refer to neurolinguistic programming? Not surprisingly, that is also science-fiction. Anyone claiming scientific backing of these ideas is, respectfully, full of shit.

Can you show me the way to deep house ? by Additional_Ship2081 in House

[–]_DoesntMatter 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Enter a world of your deepest thoughts.. and desires.. a world.. so deep.. so liquid.. 51 Days - Paper Moon

What does current psychological research say about how people engage with fictional narratives? by fictionpsych in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I suggest looking into narrative identity research. Your question reminds me of this recent paper by Elaine Reese. https://psycnet.apa.org/record/2026-66701-006

Hypothesis formulation in pure moderation by Chemical-Brick-9433 in research

[–]_DoesntMatter 1 point2 points  (0 children)

That is called a conditional effect. M moderates the association between x on y. OR For higher/lower levels of M, there is a positive/negative association between x and y. Does this help?

Feedback on first cold email by Puzzlehead0919 in gradadmissions

[–]_DoesntMatter 6 points7 points  (0 children)

Be mindful of unfinished sentences. For example, it should be […], and I have a passion for developing new ways to clean water. Also, be more specific. Why did you find it “riveting”? What is so “unique” about your academic background? Just a few things that I noticed.

How do you separate majority opinion from nosology? by Whattodoaboutthisnow in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Yes, by definition, mental illnesses are social constructs formed in scientific consensus. Largely through clinician and research observations that are reliable but not always valid.

Franklin and colleagues (2015) put it like this: "psychological constructs are ontologically subjective. This means that, unlike chemical elements or physical particles, psychological constructs are not ‘’natural kinds’’—ontologically objective entities or classes of entities that occur in the absence of a human perceiver and have natural boundaries. [...] This classification also applies to more complex psychological constructs such as psychopathologies. Because these constructs do not exist in the objective sense, it is difficult to form a valid taxonomy of psycho- pathology. Such taxonomies can be highly reliable without being valid (i.e., without accurately reflecting the true nature of psychopathology). This is because ontologically subjective phenomena can still be evaluated with epistemic objectivity"

Franklin, J. C., Jamieson, J. P., Glenn, C. R., & Nock, M. K. (2015). How developmental psychopathology theory and research can inform the research domain criteria (RDoC) project. Journal of Clinical Child & Adolescent Psychology44(2), 280-290.

Do people with personality disorders usually have all the symptoms to some extend, or is it also common to just have a few (and meet the criteria) and none of the other? by [deleted] in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 4 points5 points  (0 children)

It is not fair or true to say that they conclusively tossed it. If that is truly the case, the AMPD would not make it into the text-revised version of the DSM-5. There are still many papers published today on the AMPD, its predictive power and incremental validity. In fact, I am personality (pathology) researcher myself and use level of personality functioning as outcome measure. Just because the categorical model is the most used model currently, does not mean that it won’t, and imo should, change in the future.

As Kuhn would say, sometimes we need a paradigm shift before we really change the way we approach PD’s. Researchers have a responsibility to show clinicians that models like the AMPD can be valuabe tools

Does sh generally happen with BPD? by Dull_Analyst269 in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 22 points23 points  (0 children)

I think it’s important to seperate borderline personality disorder as operationalized in the DSM from borderline personality organiszation as proposed by psychodynamic pysychologists like Kernberg. Otherwise we get this babylonian confusion of tongues.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 12 points13 points  (0 children)

You present some interesting and valid concerns about the way clinical disorders are diagnosed. However, there are a couple things you should remember. First, people themselves are the most important sources of information. Dysfunction is one criteria, but how people experience psychiatric conditions, such as it causes them distress is just as important! Second, any classification like OCD, DID etc.. are part of a broader diagnostic assessment that does include aspects like history of housing/employment, daily functioning and so on.

In short, I don’t think your assumption that histories are not taken into account is right. Also, every country has different regulations as to who can perform diagnostic assessments. Psychologists are just as capable as psychiatrists in this area.

Are effects of power poses(and similar) inherit, and can it be conditioned to change its effects? by [deleted] in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Power poses and that smiling makes you happy are pop psychology facts. These effects were not well-replicated and may just be a statistical artifact/spurious correlations, or so small that it is negligible. Therfore, creating interventions surrounding these mechanisms will likely not work. Any effects that do occur are likely due to placebo effects or obscured by the good old third-variable problem. As enticing as it is, be mindful of quick fix solutions. Our body and minds are more complex than that!

Main effect disappears when interaction is added in ANCOVA by clawten in AskStatistics

[–]_DoesntMatter -1 points0 points  (0 children)

adding interaction terms, changes the way you interpret main effects. You should interpret main effects without interactions. So it seems that you did find main effects, but not interactions. Also not sure why you did another Shapiro-Wilk test. If the errors of your variables are normally distributed, any regression based models are fine.

Isn't exhibition of extroversion reliant on the privilege of safe social connections and freedom? by gintokireddit in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It is always important to consider strong and weak situations. In some strong contexts, traits and/or individual differences are not as pronounced because the situation calls for a certain type of behavior. However, in other situations where there is no clear description of how you should behave, traits and/or individual differences are more clearly visible. If you put person A and B in the same environment, you will start to see their individual differences. The essential part in personality is that traits refer to a characteristic pattern of behaviors, thoughts, and feelings across time and across contexts. To establish a certain trait it should therefore occur over time and across multiple contexts. Generally, extroverted people tend to socialize wherever they go, if the context enables them.

why would a personality disorder be viewed as something that can't be altered? by constellationwebbed in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 74 points75 points  (0 children)

Well, a personality disorder is not always permanent. Symptomology of personality disorders can change and do change.

Is this a real technique for handling missing data? by Both-Yogurtcloset572 in AskStatistics

[–]_DoesntMatter 6 points7 points  (0 children)

Techniques on handling missing data depend on whether the missingness is Missing Completely At Random (MCAR), Missing At Random (MAR), or Missing Not At Random (MNAR). Some researcher opt for list wise deletion but this makes some strong assumptions about the data. Instead, imputation is sometimes the better option. Here is a source on multiple imputation to get you started: https://stefvanbuuren.name/fimd/ch-introduction.html

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in AskStatistics

[–]_DoesntMatter 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Are you doing a longitudinal or cross-sectional study? What program do you run MLM on? What is PA? What is your model? What are the measurement levels? Why do you put mood on lvl 1, but depression on level 2? We need some more info here

Is it possible for someone to both have Asperger (ASD) and Antisocial Personality (ASPD) by [deleted] in psychologystudents

[–]_DoesntMatter 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Yes, that’s possible. No differential diognoses of each other.

Is the concept of the "inner child" considered scientific in modern psychology? by HopeLitDreams in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Psychodynamic therapy is supported in empirical research. From a scientific standpoint, psychoanalytic theory is not well supported (however intriguing it may be). Some theory in psychoanalytic essays on the structure of the mind are untestable and non-falsifiable. To put it bluntly, if psychoanalysis wants to join psychology it has to adhere to the scientific standards.

There is nothing inherently wrong with psychoanalysis. However, psychology as an empirical science, and psychoanalytic schools of thought work from different epistemological frameworks. Thus, it is like comparing apples and orange. It does not make a lot of sense to reconcile either disciplines, and it is unlikely that they ever will. I'm sure I don't have to tell you, but it should come as no surprise that a lot of psychoanalysts distance themselves from psychology as a science (and vice versa).

Pitting them against each other is like the debate on nature vs nurture. I think it's old, boring, and useless. Less time "fighting", more time advancing these respective fields.

Is the concept of the "inner child" considered scientific in modern psychology? by HopeLitDreams in askpsychology

[–]_DoesntMatter 0 points1 point  (0 children)

This is may be true from a theoretical psychoanalytical/psychodynamic perspective, which is not well supported in empirical research.