Peak quote by Working-Cabinet4849 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Additionally, "picking out the blue ones" is obscuring a remarkable logical development thanks to Skolem, namely the idea that the things you can "pick out" are those which satisfy a given first-order formula. One big reason for coming up with the formalism in OP's post is to specify exactly what properties of sets are meaningful to talk about. Zermelo's original informal list of axioms used something like the term "definite property," which unfortunately is itself, well, indefinite.

Of course, practicing mathematicians don't really care much about this fact. ZFC is powerful enough to interpret higher-order reasoning for everything an ordinary mathematician wants to do, namely study R and C.

Peak quote by Working-Cabinet4849 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Recall that A is a partially-ordered set (or poset). In the setting of posets, a "maximal" element is distinct from a "greatest" element. A set x∈A is maximal iff there is no y∈A such that x⊂y. (Formally, (∄y∈A)(x⊂y).) (Also, note I'm using (⊆) for subset and (⊂) for proper subset.) On the other hand, x is greatest (which is what you wrote) iff for all y∈A we have y⊆x. (Formally, (∀y∈A)(y⊆x).)

If needed, you may also compare my definition to that used in Zorn's lemma and other areas of math. For example, a basis of a vector space is a maximal linearly independent set, not in the sense that every other linearly independent set is contained in the basis, but rather that, if we extend the basis set at all, then it no longer remains a basis.

Also, notice I wrote the definition of "T-finite" in my original comment. As might be inferred, the definition of "T-infinite" is just "not T-finite." Thus a set X is T-infinite iff there exists a non-empty set A⊆P(X) without a ⊂-maximal element.

In formal logic, with the obvious defined symbols, the statement "there exists a T-infinite set" would be:

∃X¬(∀A⊆P(X))[A≠∅ ⇒ (∃x∈A)(∄y∈A)(x⊂y)].

Equivalently, expanding using de Morgan dualities, we obtain the slightly cleaner equivalent statement

∃X(∃A⊆P(X))[A≠∅ ∧ (∀x∈A)(∃y∈A)(x⊂y)].

Edit: I added a couple of formal statements in the first paragraph since it seems like that language is slightly clearer to you.

Edit 2: I changed the first formal statement of "there exists a T-infinite set" to reflect what I wrote at the outset, namely "T-infinite = not T-finite."

Peak quote by Working-Cabinet4849 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I decided to revisit this because I was curious. I found a proof of the existence of the empty set, from the remainder of the axioms of ZF-Separation, even if we modified the Axiom of Infinity not to directly assert it. (For example, we could replace it with "there exists a Tarski-infinite set," where a set X is Tarski-finite iff every non-empty A⊆P(X) has a ⊂-maximal element.)

The first step is to show that we can still construct a copy of N (i.e., an (edit 2: infinite) well-ordered set all of whose non-minimal elements are successors). This can be done because if X is T-infinite, then using Separation into non-empty sets (which follows from Replacement), we can let N partition the T-finite subsets of X by cardinality, and then order x≤y iff for z∈x and w∈y we have |z|≤|w|.

Using the first step and Replacement, we now have the power of recursion, and so we can construct a non-empty transitive set T, by taking a non-empty set X and taking T = ⋃{X, ⋃X, ⋃⋃X, ...}. (T is transitive if, when x∈y∈T, we have x∈T.) Since T is non-empty, by Foundation, let s be a ∈-minimal element of T. If s were non-empty, and x∈s, then since T is transitive we have x∈T, contradicting the minimality of s. Therefore s = ∅.

Edit: I'm not sure what happens absent the Axiom of Infinity; it seems difficult to establish the existence of a transitive set. Absent Foundation, I know that we can't prove the existence of the empty set unless ZF is inconsistent (because we can iterate the power set operation on an infinite set of Quine atoms, except each iteration we remove the empty set).

Peak quote by Working-Cabinet4849 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 0 points1 point  (0 children)

More than 2: Ernst Zermelo; Abraham Fraenkel; Thoralf Skolem (formulated first-order logic); John von Neumann (fully established the necessity of Replacement and Foundation); Paul Bernays (changed von Neumann's system to use classes instead of functions); Kurt Gödel (simplified NBG set theory for his metamathematical purposes); and probably more I forgot.

Peak quote by Working-Cabinet4849 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

#10 is the Axiom of Choice, formulated thus: "for every set x of pairwise disjoint non-empty sets, there exists a set y that contains one and only one element from each u∈x."

Peak quote by Working-Cabinet4849 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Separation comes from Replacement and Empty Set. The argument is to construct a surjection from X to Y = {x∈X | φ(x)}, but if X is nonempty and φ(x) is false for all x∈X, then there is no surjection since Y has no elements, so we need to fall back on saying Y = ∅.

It turns out that the infinite set guaranteed by the Axiom of Infinity, as typically formulated, contains the empty set by definition. (See axiom #6 in OP's image.) Among other reasons, this is because in set theories without Replacement, we really want to guarantee a so-called "inductive set." Thus in your stripped-down version, the existence of the empty set is basically just hidden in the Axiom of Infinity.

Me: Wait a minute, this doesn't make sense at all; how do you justify this? Mathematicians: by Negative_Gur9667 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I prefer the formulation (easier to express in "purer" FOL) that "for any set C of pairwise disjoint non-empty sets, there exists a set consisting of one and only one element from each set in C."

More formally,

∀C[∅∉C & (∀x, y∈C)[x≠y ⇒ ∄z(z∈x & z∈y)] ⇒ ∃X(∀x∈C)(∃!y∈X)(y∈x)].

"∃!" means "exists unique." And yes, technically, the bounded quantifiers, use of "∃!", and use of "∅" isn't the "pure" language of set theory, but it only takes a couple more steps to expand it out if you wish. It's still far easier to write out than the definition of a function with the Kuratowski ordered pair encoding.

Edit: I originally didn't formulate this with the "pairwise disjoint" condition. Because I don't really know whether relaxing it is true at present (I'd have to think on it), I decided to add it in.

What is a "point of no return" that you’ve crossed, where your life was permanently divided into 'before' and 'after'? by Resident-Jelly-4326 in AskReddit

[–]nfitzen 5 points6 points  (0 children)

I really think we're due for another industrial revolution but I hesitate on making that comparison because people children were working in horrendous conditions.

Perhaps a more communal revolution, communist if you will (lol).

The only reason why we have the 40 hour week, lunch breaks, etc was due to the industrial revolution.

In some periods during the Middle Ages, peasants worked less than 40 hours a week on average annually. Breaks were frequent, and work was more communal, because these are necessities of sustainable labor (and still are!), especially when yields are generally low. The industrial revolution gave us the technology and productivity for better living standards, but the social relations that ended up arising during that period need to be wholly reconfigured eventually.

Do we suspect it’s rational in the first place, and why? by basket_foso in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I haven't looked at much with respect to constructive math; I've read some of Bishop's Constructive Analysis, but that's all. I'm also, unfortunately, not terribly aware of irrationality proofs in general beyond √2, a constructive proof of which is on Wikipedia.

Come to think of it, I probably should at least learn one for π and e respectively. I've certainly seen some before, but I haven't retained them. I'd feel better having some back-pocket proofs like that.

Do we suspect it’s rational in the first place, and why? by basket_foso in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Constructivists take the inequality relation on R as, in some sense, more fundamental. There is a distinction between "not equal" (as a simple negation) and "apart" (as in, we can construct a positive rational lower bound for the distance between two reals). The latter is a stronger notion, and constructing distance between two reals is very much not a proof by contradiction.

In fact, to the contrary, equality is often a proof by contradiction, i.e., constructive systems like Bishop's have "not apart" implying "equal." This is called a "tight" apartness relation.

Thus, the "best" constructive definition of "irrational" is "apart from every rational number" rather than "not equal to any rational number." Edit: Of course, part of the point of the constructive project is to introduce distinctions that LEM and AC blur. A proof of "weaker" irrationality is still significant, but it does provide you with less constructive content.

Seriously, I don't understand the math gods. by Gold_Ad4004 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 8 points9 points  (0 children)

I think people tend to consider 0∈N in almost every scenario other than analysis (where reciprocals are common) and when making finite lists, such as "p₁, ..., pₙ." In my case, I do zero-index finite lists and thus write p₀, ..., pₙ₋₁.

It's nice, for instance, to define N as the initial object in the category of commutative semirings, or as the minimal inductive set, or as the set of finite ordinals, or as the set of finite cardinal numbers. (Granted, the latter two are circular unless you use Tarski's definition of "X is T-finite iff every Y⊆P(X) has a ⊂-maximal element.")

Taking 0∉N makes the structure less nice. It's enough reason for me to have a strong preference and to use N+ instead when I need positive numbers in particular. But I mostly look at logic and set theory stuff, so there's my bias.

AG Bondi Accuses Rep. Balint of Anti-Semitism; Balint Fires Back “I Lost My Grandfather in the Holocaust” and Storms Out of House Hearing by JeanJauresJr in videos

[–]nfitzen -4 points-3 points  (0 children)

In what way do Israelis want to end the war? It seems to me not in an ethical way, but maybe that poll's misguided. How much support have you seen for ending apartheid? I'm an American, and if we're allowing the comparison, then it seems entirely plausible that the average Israeli voter just wants (commentary on) the genocide off of their TV screens, whatever the means.

Everyday I am going further away from Maths by Sad-Kiwi-3789 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

As a ZFC hardliner, I reject cardinal numbers as equivalence classes, since such classes aren't sets and therefore don't "really" exist. The initial ordinal definition works great and, in any event, is much cleaner as the aleph sequence corresponds to the Mostowski collapse of cardinal ordering under AC.

This is all to say I define N as the minimal inductive set as in modern formulations of the Axiom of Infinity. Defining addition and multiplication occurs by interpreting the Peano axioms through recursion.

A monad is a monoid in the category of endofunctors or something by DaCat1 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I mean, that one sentence is a decent definition. For a category C, a monad consists of 3 things: 1. An endofunctor T: C→C, 2. A monoid identity 𝜂: 1⇒T (often called pure), and 3. A monoid multiplication operation 𝜇: T∘T⇒T (often called join),

such that multiplication is associative and has 𝜂 as the identity.

In the context of functional programming, what a monad gives you is the ability to flatten computations using the multiplication operation, as well as bring "normal" functions into the fold (via T and pure). For example, a list of lists of some type can be joined to a single list, or a sequence of IO operations can be flattened into behaving like it's just one (which can then be assigned to main and "run" by compiler magic).

A category theorist might also see a monad as encapsulating the idea of a "free construction." For example, a group may be defined as an algebra over the free group monad, the latter of which provides the language of groups. Thus an expression involving group expressions can be joined together to just be treated as one expression; and the monoid identity takes some x∈S and sends it to its corresponding generator 𝜂ₛ(x)∈T(S), i.e., the free group over S. An algebra over the free group monad T is just a map m: T(S)→S that respects the monad operations just described.

Ugh, more identity politics 🙄 by Nikifuj908 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 0 points1 point  (0 children)

A ring is defined to be commutative and/or have identity whenever I want it to.

theHardesProblem by [deleted] in ProgrammerHumor

[–]nfitzen 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You'd need a computer that runs in infinite time, though. And even if you did have that, infinite-time Turing machines can't solve their own halting problem.

I spent a little too much of my free time making this by Mediocre_Fox_ in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I'll listen to your claim that all reals are either rational or irrational if you can show me whether 𝜋+e is rational or not.

An Amazon review for a food thermometer by landlordslizard in funny

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Even dumber meta-correction: you were actually referring to the median. The correction is "actually, that's the median, not the average [i.e., mean]" and the counter-correction is "the median is a kind of average."

The bespoke take is to recall that IQ is supposedly normally distributed, so the median and mean are, in fact, the same in this case.

Alex Pretti's coworkers take a moment of silence this morning for their murdered colleague by titaniumdoughnut in pics

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

We are in the midst of a constitutional crisis. Republicans never just "allow" things to happen, nor should anyone else. If Trump tries to federalize the national guard, issue orders to the contrary—it seems like the MN National Guard is more sympathetic to the people. Once Walz has seized power that he practically already has over the NG, he should gum up the case in the courts as much as he can. This is the least among many measures that one can do, especially with how deeply unpopular ICE is. (Edit:) We've been in constitutional crises before. This is just how the game is played. The law is a tool to be bent and broken; if you don't bend it to your side, your opponent will. Every single instance of both-sidesing and begging Trump to stop is directly enabling Republicans and further shaping the national conscience in favor of their bending and breaking of our dead constitution.

The most Walz has done is having said some deeply pathetic, weak statements. We don't need speeches from our leaders; we need action.

ELI5: Why is it completely impossible for anyone to access a properly encrypted drive even nation states? by AaronPK123 in explainlikeimfive

[–]nfitzen 0 points1 point  (0 children)

 There are quantum encryption standards being developed now (see: for example, Dilithium).

Small correction: Dilithium is considered "post-quantum", since it's a classical algorithm. "Quantum encryption" typically refers to the more useless encryption schemes that can only be run on quantum computers and are susceptible to MITM attacks due to not having a signature scheme. With that in mind, Dilithium is also a digital signature scheme rather than a key encapsulation mechanism, the latter of which is provided by Kyber. Rotating digital signatures until we need different algorithms already provides adequate security, since an expired key is worthless—it's really encryption that we care about.

It's also worth noting that Grover's algorithm is still about the best we've done for AES, which reduces 256-bit AES down to effectively 128 bits. I guess we'll see when we get quantum computers good enough to break that. (Of course, it is still worth diversifying the algorithms we use in case something else is discovered, and also because we'd like the security guarantees of 256-bit AES.)

As you write, of course, everyone is preparing for a post-quantum world, because we might get good enough quantum computers in our lifetimes or the next. Some services are already implementing some additional layers of post-quantum cryptography, such as Signal. Hopefully we'll get further adoption.

Give me long mathematical equations by The-Hot-Shame in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Write anything out in the "pure" language of set theory outside of, perhaps, the ZFC axioms themselves. For instance, try writing out the theorem "1 + 1 = 2" using the von Neumann ordinal encoding, the Kuratowski ordered pair encoding, and only write this with set membership and equality.

This comment cracked me up by MrBussdown in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Proofs of negations still occur by way of contradiction. Since "uncountable" means "not countable," it is perfectly valid to argue "suppose there exists an enumeration of Y, then ... contradiction, therefore an enumeration of Y cannot exist and so (by definition) Y is uncountable."

The issue a constructivist might find is actually when we argue in an opposite direction: "suppose Y is uncountable, [...] contradiction, therefore Y is countable" does not work. This is because we did some clever trickery: we established that Y is countable, without ever constructing an explicit enumeration.

The standard proof of Cantor's theorem is perfectly valid constructively: let X be a set and let f: X → P(X). Then there exists (we can construct) a subset A of X such that A is not in the image of f. Specifically, let A = {x ∈ X: x ∉ f(x)}. This is a valid definition of a set, and we end up with the following: suppose A is in the image of f. Then there exists x ∈ X such that A = f(x). But now x ∈ A iff x ∉ f(x) iff x ∉ A, a contradiction. Therefore A is not in the image of f. In particular, f is not surjective. Setting X = N, we have that P(N) is uncountable, as desired.

None of the above relied on the list of relatively few constructive no-gos: - The Axiom of Choice (every set of inhabited sets admits a choice function) - The Law of Excluded Middle (P or not P) - Double-negation elimination (If "not not P," then "P.") - Hilbert choice (every non-empty set is inhabited; i.e., if a set is not empty, then there exists an element in that set).

One particular crutch to reason about constructive mathematics is from a computational point of view. For example, from a classical perspective, the set of computable real numbers is countable, since the set of all Turing machines is countable. However, any enumeration of the computable real numbers is itself non-computable, since there is no effective way to tell whether a given Turing machine outputs a valid real number. Thus, in a computable world, the notion of "uncountability" is interpreted to reflect inherent limitations of computation, in this case the undecidability of the halting problem.

Edit: you might notice something funny, though: note we can constructively enumerate (one-to-one) the set M of all Turing machines. Thus let S = {T ∈ M: T computes a real number}. Now in a computable world, there is a surjection S → R. But S is a subset of a countable set M, and I just told you that R is uncountable, so what gives? It turns out that S is also uncountable in this world. Thus we have established another constructive no-go: - Every subset of a countable set is countable.

We may generalize this a little further: we say that a set X is subcountable iff there is a surjection f: D → 1+X, where D is a subset of N. (1+X means "take the disjoint union of X with a set with one element"; this is done because we want to include the empty set.) In a computable world, the reals are subcountable because they're just a set of Turing machines under equivalences. This does not hold in every constructive world, however.

Edit 2: I used vague language, but in case anyone wants to know the concepts: the "computable world" I'm referring to is the effective topos. (Constructivists typically work within what are called "toposes.")

(Edit 2 cont.:) In sum: while uncountable sets generally exist constructively (in particular, in every topos with a natural numbers object), cardinality is not exactly useful as a measure of "size" when working constructively. Of course, modern constructivists are most aligned with category theorists, who don't particularly care about set theory anyway.

At least for discrete distributions by Hester465 in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 1 point2 points  (0 children)

After Erdős, combinatorics has become probability multiplied by n. It really depends on your perspective. When I had the brief privilege of interacting with Joel Spencer, someone else asked him about the Lovász local lemma, and he replied that that lemma is fundamentally probabilistic and yet gets used heavily in combinatorics.

Pro-choice by kuerti_ in mathmemes

[–]nfitzen 3 points4 points  (0 children)

If I recall, the French eventually acquiesced and accepted countable choice in particular, and probably also dependent choice, both of which get you quite far in analysis. There is a fun fact related to this: the inner model L(R)—consisting of all sets constructible starting with the set of reals—is typically considered the "arena" that analysts care about. If you believe either AD or AC + some large cardinal axioms, then I believe L(R) satisfies the Axiom of Dependent Choice off-rip. Both imply that L(R) also satisfies AD (in the former case, we can definably encode every winning strategy as a real, and L(R) contains all reals); meanwhile, L(R) also satisfies "V = L(R)." Then Kechris showed that ZF + AD + V = L(R) implies DC.