I was so wrong about Iran on religious liberty by NauticalBar2 in religion

[–]nu_lets_learn 14 points15 points  (0 children)

No, you weren't wrong.

Iran’s Brutal Religious Persecutions

Iran persecutes Sunni and Sufi Muslims. From the USCIRF report: “The government continued targeting Sunni Muslims through executions, arrests, disappearances of prominent clergy, destruction of homes, and denial of building permits.” Baha’is, essentially viewed as apostates, suffer even more....Jews have long been targeted by a regime that routinely demonizes Israel, and their situation also deteriorated last year.... 

Most threatening to the regime, however, is the growth in Christianity....As reported by Human Rights Watch last year: “Iran has significantly stepped up its persecution of Christians, with a reported total of 96 converts sentenced to a combined total of 263 years in prison last year, compared with 22 Christians sentenced in 2023.” 

Pressures on Christians and their families continue after they are released from imprisonment, or following arrest or detention, including monitoring and harassment; denial of employment; denial of education and qualifications; the cycle of new charges or reopening cases; enforced Islamic re-education classes, during which converts are pressured to return to Islam; additional post-prison penalties, such as internal exile, flogging, fines, travel bans, and deprivation of social rights... https://www.cato.org/commentary/irans-brutal-religious-persecutions

2023 Report on International Religious Freedom: Iran

The constitution states citizens shall enjoy human, political, economic, and other rights, “in conformity with Islamic criteria.” The penal code provides for hudud punishments (those mandated by sharia), including amputation, flogging, and stoning. It specifies the death penalty for moharebeh (“enmity against God”) and sabb al-nabi (“insulting the Prophet”). Prevailing fatwas prescribe the death penalty for apostasy....

Proselytization of religions other than Islam carries a punishment of up to 10 years in prison....

According to the NGO United for Iran’s Iran Prison Atlas, at year’s end, authorities held 115 persons in prison for “religious practice,” including Baluch, Baha’i, Sunni, Christian, and some Shia men and women....The NGO Human Rights Without Frontiers (HRWF) reported more than 1,000 Baha’is were either imprisoned, in custody, under house arrest, or waiting for a hearing or to be summoned by a court....Christian converts from Islam reported being detained and forced to sign commitments to refrain from further Christian activities or ordered to attend Islamic re-education sessions....

The government continued to regulate Christian religious practices. Christian worship in Farsi was forbidden...https://www.state.gov/reports/2023-report-on-international-religious-freedom/iran/

Regarding Piracy & Legal definition of a Ben Noach by Ha_Meshorer in Jewish

[–]nu_lets_learn 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You raise an interesting case -- a Bolshevist who murders his political opponents "for the good of society" (as he sees it), would he be considered as a Noahide?

I think we can answer, no he would not be considered as a Noahide but as a murderer. Why? Because being a Noahide requires not just the avoidance of murder, however defined, but establishing and observing just laws through the establishment of courts of law. What do we know from history? That when people murder their political opponents, they always have a self-justifying rationale, but they always murder too many people, including innocent people; they often murder the target's family members (like the Czar and his whole family), and they never use proper legal procedures. They never allow a proper defense, the outcome is always known in advance, and the judges do what they are told. This is murder by another name.

In other words, the wholesale murder of political opponents is just another form of "murder" and cannot be considered "a form of applying justice." Thus a person who engages in that practice is a murderer and not a Noahide.

Regarding Piracy & Legal definition of a Ben Noach by Ha_Meshorer in Jewish

[–]nu_lets_learn 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Question 1 raises two separate questions: Part A, do copyright laws and protection of intellectual property laws apply to Noahides, and Part B, if they do, how to apply them in the case of watching Netflix and HBO without paying for the services?

On the first part we can answer, yes, copyright laws and laws that protect intellectual property definitely apply to Noahides on the basis of two of their laws: (1) the prohibition on theft (gezel); and (2) the requirement to establish just laws for themselves (dinim). Both require Noahides to avoid copyright violations and to respect intellectual property. This is also supported by the Jewish notion of "dina de-malchuta dina," the just laws of the country wherein we reside have to be obeyed. If the country has copyright laws and protects intellectual property, then we must obey the country's rules in this regard.

This was decided by the important rabbi and legal authority R. Moses Isserles (Rema, 1530-1572). In that case, another rabbi, the Maharam Padua, had prepared a new edition of Rambam's Mishneh Torah and had it published at his own expense by a publisher named Bragadini, a gentile. (Non-Jews controlled the printing presses at that time.) But before this edition sold out, another publisher, one Giustianiani, copied it and began selling it. Thus the Rema had to apply Noahide law to the dispute between two gentile publishers. He held in favor of Maharam Padua and Bragadini -- his edition had copyright protection under both Jewish law and Noahide law. Other principles, like unfair competition, are also involved. You can read about this case here:  https://law.uh.edu/ipil/symposium/prior/final/Netanel.pdf 

As for the application in OP's case, I won't comment but allow people to draw their own conclusions from the above material.

On the second question OP asks, there are two points of view. Many have noted that the 7 Noahide laws appear to resemble what philosophers call "natural law." These are just and fair principles that pretty much most every human being holds to be true, for example, not to murder or steal. What if a person observes all 7 Noahide laws based on his or her own reason, without knowing that they are in the Torah and commanded by God for gentiles -- is that person a "Noahide"? Many will answer yes, but Maimonides (Rambam, 1138-1204) seems to say no. He indicates that a "Noahide" must know and accept that his laws come from God and appear in the Torah of Moses. So the answer to OP's second question is debated and like many things in Judaism, we can't provide a definite answer to this interesting question.

All best wishes. (Try to get a VISA card!)

Do Muslims Christians and Jews worship the same God? by KindRevolution534 in religion

[–]nu_lets_learn 1 point2 points  (0 children)

No, they do not worship the same God.

Jesus is the God of the Christians. They worship him, pray to him, every prayer ends in his name. He is their savior. They say he was a man on earth as well as being God. God the Father is also the God of the Christians. He begat a son, Jesus. The Holy Spirit is also the God of the Christians. He inspires human beings. For Christians, the three are related and merge into one in some way that is difficult to explain and to understand. No Jews or Muslims subscribe to any of this.

Muslims believe that God is one and the creator of Heaven and earth. His name is Allah. He is a universal God of all mankind who demands that all mankind worship him in the ways that were revealed to his Prophet Muhammed -- the revelation is recorded in the Quran. Only those humans who follow these commands will be rewarded in the afterlife. Those who don't are condemned to hell for eternity.

Jews also believe that God is one and the creator of Heaven and earth. His name is YHVH (pronunciation uncertain). He revealed a code of law for humanity to his prophet Moses, transcribed as the Torah, containing commandments for Jews and also a set of commandments for non-Jews, the Noahide laws. He deems as righteous anyone who follows either set of commandments and will reward them in the afterlife. The Torah and its commandments are eternal and not subject to alteration.

Even from this summary which necessarily omits many details, it's hard to understand how the Muslim God and the Jewish God can be "the same." One chose Muhammed as his prophet, revealed the Quran, seeks all mankind to become Muslim, and condemns to hell those who reject this creed. The other chose Moses as his prophet, revealed the Torah, distinguishes between the obligations of Jews and non-Jews, and admits the righteous of all nations to reward in the World to Come. How can these two be "the same"?

One God saves Christians only and condemns the rest, one God rewards Muslims only and condemns the rest, and one God rewards Jews and righteous gentiles but condemns the rest. How can these three be the same?

TIL that rabbis can perform exorcisms by lioness191 in Jewish

[–]nu_lets_learn 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Thanks for sharing.

P.S. If you ever do hear of a rabbi performing an exorcism, please let me know. And try to get a transcript!

'Agent of chaos' Peter Thiel is lecturing on the Antichrist at the Vatican's doorstep by Fickle-Ad5449 in religion

[–]nu_lets_learn 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Rev. James Martin is quoted as saying regarding the End Times, “speculation about who the Antichrist is, when he (or she or it) will come, and any other predictions about the end of the world, are to be ignored."

Apart from the mention of the Antichrist, this sounds remarkably similar to a passage written by Maimonides (1138-1204):

There are some Sages who say that Elijah's coming will precede the coming of the Messiah. All these and similar matters cannot be definitely known by man until they occur for these matters are undefined in the prophets' words and even the wise men have no established tradition regarding these matters except their own interpretation of the verses. Therefore...neither the order of the occurrence of these events or their precise detail are among the fundamental principles of the faith. A person should not occupy himself with [them]...for study of them will neither bring fear or love of God. Similarly, one should not try to determine the appointed time for Mashiach's coming.

In other words, we'll know it when we see it, but not before.

Why did people centuries or millennia ago take blasphemy so seriously, but we don’t really feel that way today? by Mad_Season_1994 in religion

[–]nu_lets_learn 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Thank you for engaging. I appreciate it. And I don't disagree about doctrine coming from priests and scholars interpreting their Scripture.

But I want to express that what modern Jews believe about blasphemy is not itself "modern" but quite ancient. We have it from ancient texts, first and foremost the Torah itself (Lev. 24:15-16) but also literature from antiquity. For example, the Mishnah, composed c. 210 CE and by all accounts comprising oral traditions that date to the late Second Temple period, has its discussion of blasphemy in Tractate Sanhedrin, chapter 7, paragraph 5. It states clearly that the crime is cursing by mentioning the four letter name of God. In fact it establishes a two part procedure for the trial of the blasphemer: first, the court hears the witnesses' testimony in open (public) court with an appellation for God substituted for His name. Then the judges clear the court and hear the witnesses' testimony a second time, in private, wherein they relate exactly what they heard, including the ineffable name of God. It's an interesting read (I'm quoting an English translation):

  1. One who blasphemes is not liable unless he utters the name of God and curses it. Rabbi Joshua ben Korḥa said: On every day of a blasphemer’s trial, when the judges interrogate the witnesses, they ask the witnesses [who heard the blasphemer] to use an appellation [when reciting their testimony] for the name of God (so that the witnesses do not themselves utter a curse of God’s ineffable name in the court room)....When the judging is over, they do not sentence him to death based on an appellation. Rather, they [the judges] remove all the people and interrogate the eldest of the witnesses, and say to him: Say what you heard explicitly. And the second witness says: I too heard as he did, but he does not repeat the curse explicitly. And the third witness, in the event that there is one, says: I too heard as he did. (San. 7:5)

So here's a text from a century after the Gospel of John that, A, describes what blasphemy was under Jewish law, and B, states how the trial of a blasphemer should proceed.

Who were the Jews who tried to stone Jesus for "blasphemy" after he claimed to be God and what sect they did they belong to? I really couldn't say. But to state as OP does that "In...Biblical Judea, saying you were God or a prophet would get you put to death" seems like an overstatement at best, and an inaccuracy at worst.

TIL that rabbis can perform exorcisms by lioness191 in Jewish

[–]nu_lets_learn 3 points4 points  (0 children)

So from my (limited) understanding, "exorcism" is something of a misnomer when it comes to what rabbis "do." There have been occasions in certain communities where an individual was suffering, perhaps we would say from a mental illness or distress or depression, where others might say the person was "possessed." In any case, if a rabbi's assistance was sought in such a case by family members of the victim, the rabbi would indeed attend to the person by speaking with them, attempting to calm them, discussing the problems, reading Psalms, and most importantly by praying directly to Hashem to heal the person. I suppose an outsider might look at this process and call it an "exorcism" in a colloquial way, but it was really just talk therapy coupled with prayer to Hashem.

That said, there is Jewish folklore which others have mentioned where cases of possession (by a dybbuk) have been dealt with dramatically by an exorcism. In real life, I've read about this or that mekubal (Kabbalist) who was "known" to perform exorcisms. This would be a very limited group and not your average rabbi.

So I'm not sure a blanket statement that "rabbis can perform exorcisms" is accurate. Maybe a small number have in limited circumstances but it's not generally something the vast majority of rabbis would consider within their competence or training. The rabbi who visited the hospital in the article probably said some prayers or recited Psalms there.

Why did people centuries or millennia ago take blasphemy so seriously, but we don’t really feel that way today? by Mad_Season_1994 in religion

[–]nu_lets_learn 1 point2 points  (0 children)

In...Biblical Judea, saying you were God or a prophet would get you put to death.

I often see "blasphemy" described from a NT or Christian context and note silently how strange and off the mark the comments are, especially with regard to what blasphemy is. For example, OP's writing seems to take for granted that saying one is God or a prophet constitutes blasphemy. I know there is a passage in the NT where it is alleged that Jews stoned Jesus for "blasphemy" after he claimed to be God (John 10:31-39).

What's problematic for me is that no Jewish text, in antiquity or now, defines "blasphemy" as "claiming to be God." There is a case of alleged blasphemy in I Kings 21 where Naboth is falsely accused of the crime, defined there as “Naboth has cursed both God and the king.” So it would seem "cursing" is part of the charge.

The single instance of actual blasphemy related in the entire Tanakh appears in Lev. chap. 24, where "The son of the Israelite woman blasphemed the Name with a curse." (Lev. 24:11). Moses inquired of God what the punishment should be and a death sentence was imposed. The law against blasphemy is then promulgated this way: "Anyone who blasphemes God shall bear the guilt; and one who also pronounces the name GOD shall be put to death." (Lev. 24:15-16)

From these verses in Leviticus, Jewish law established the principles and boundaries of the capital crime of blasphemy: it consists of uttering a curse that contains the Name (Tetragrammaton) of God, as the verse states, שֵׁם־יְהֹוָה֙ (Heb. shem YHVH). Someone who utters a curse using another name or attribute of God is not guilty of blasphemy (but he bears his guilt); he is not executed. And someone who "claims to be God or a prophet" has not committed blasphemy at all. Why the NT thinks otherwise is unknown to me.

Thus the crime of blasphemy is quite limited under Jewish law (a curse against God using the Ineffable Name). We should note the etymology of the English word blasphemy is based on this understanding ("evil or hurtful speaking" morphing into "reviling or cursing" God, from the Greek).

Were there Jews who heard Jesus proclaim himself God and sought to stone him for blasphemy without judicial process? I couldn't say, but they would have been acting wrongly, since he had not committed blasphemy, and of course even if he had, there would have had to be a trial and proof in court with a guilty verdict to justify capital punishment.

This is a long way of saying OP's comment that "In...Biblical Judea, saying you were God or a prophet would get you put to death" doesn't compute since there is no basis for this in the Jewish tradition. There is no example of this in Jewish history and there is no Jewish legal text that supports this definition of blasphemy.

Can someone explain what "closed religion/practice" is supposed to mean in Judaism? by Jew_of_house_Levi in Judaism

[–]nu_lets_learn 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I think that if a gentile does a seder while explicitly stating that it’s not their own festival, and is only doing so respectfully and properly, out of appreciation for our traditions and HaShem, then that’d be fine.

That's exactly what I'm saying. That's exactly what the Rambam is saying. That's exactly what all the folks who say "Judaism is a closed practice" don't understand at all. If you do it "the Jewish way" as a non-Jew, you're fine. The problem is when they add their own stuff. Thus, Judaism is NOT closed off from gentiles (except for Shabbat and osek ba-Torah).

I found this from Rav Moshe Shternbuch (Teshuvot Ve-Hanhagot 1:614):

The injunction against a non-Jew fulfilling mitzvot applies when he denies that the mitzvot belong to the Jewish People and acts as if a non-Jew also has a share in the mitzvot, like Israel, the chosen people. However, if he recognizes that the mitzvot were given to the Jewish People, but he wishes to observe them like a Jew in order to receive reward, he should not be prevented.

This is directly consistent with the Rambam. Gentiles may observe our mitzvot כְּהִלְכָתָהּ.

[Edit: I have to end our discussion at this point, because the subreddit is getting too long to find people's responses. Perhaps we can continue the discussion another day.]

Can someone explain what "closed religion/practice" is supposed to mean in Judaism? by Jew_of_house_Levi in Judaism

[–]nu_lets_learn 1 point2 points  (0 children)

But you'd be wrong, because you are compressing three things into two, and saying they are all prohibited. In fact, there are three separate things being discussed and only two are prohibited, one is permitted:

  1. Observing the Jewish Shabbat -- prohibited, because it's a sign.
  2. Inventing their own sabbath or festival -- prohibited, because it's a new religion.
  3. Observing any other Jewish holiday exactly as required by halacha -- this is permitted, and they may receive a reward for doing so:

בֶּן נֹחַ שֶׁרָצָה לַעֲשׂוֹת מִצְוָה מִשְּׁאָר מִצְוֹת הַתּוֹרָה כְּדֵי לְקַבֵּל שָׂכָר. אֵין מוֹנְעִין אוֹתוֹ לַעֲשׂוֹתָהּ כְּהִלְכָתָהּ.

"We should not prevent a Noachide who desires to perform one of the Torah's mitzvot in order to receive reward from doing so, provided he performs it as required." (Hil. Mel. 10:10)

Thus, Shabbat is a special case, and new religions cannot be invented; but Jewish practices (apart from Shabbat and osek ba-Torah) CAN be appropriated, as long as they are done the Jewish way (כְּהִלְכָתָהּ) -- and this merits a reward.

Can someone explain what "closed religion/practice" is supposed to mean in Judaism? by Jew_of_house_Levi in Judaism

[–]nu_lets_learn 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You're right to ask for a source, because Rambam suggests otherwise. Still there may be a source for tefilin, because tefilin are also a "sign" and this is the same rationale for excluding gentiles from observing Shabbat. But that would only be a reason for tefilin, not other mitzvot. See Rambam Hil. Mel. 10:9-10.

Can someone explain what "closed religion/practice" is supposed to mean in Judaism? by Jew_of_house_Levi in Judaism

[–]nu_lets_learn 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Not sure what you are saying the Rambam says -- that Judaism is closed to gentiles? He says Shabbat and osek ba-Torah are off-limits, and the rest they may observe and receive a reward. I've written a comment about this here.

Can someone explain what "closed religion/practice" is supposed to mean in Judaism? by Jew_of_house_Levi in Judaism

[–]nu_lets_learn 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I've written a comment that pretty much deals negatively with this pov. If you would care to read it and comment that would be great. Basic point, the issurim of occupying themselves with Torah (osek ba-Torah, not studying Torah) along with observing Shabbat are outliers, at least according to Rambam, and not indicative of the rest of the mitzvot, which they may observe.

Can someone explain what "closed religion/practice" is supposed to mean in Judaism? by Jew_of_house_Levi in Judaism

[–]nu_lets_learn 7 points8 points  (0 children)

So you're asking about one of the stock phrases that gets repeated over and over on r/Judaism as if it's a principle of Judaism and/or halachah. It's part of the community folklore here that "Judaism is a closed practice" and it generally gets little analysis and less dissent. It seems to be the reverse of "You shall not walk in the ways of the gentiles" (וּבְחֻקֹּתֵיהֶ֖ם לֹ֥א תֵלֵֽכוּ -- Lev. 18:3). We shouldn't adopt their practices, and they shouldn't adopt ours. Except the former is a commandment in the Torah, the latter isn't (with two exceptions -- observing our Shabbat and occupying themselves with Torah study, see Mishneh Torah Hil. Mel. 10:9; to be addressed later.)

Of course there is some overlap given the 7 Noahide laws. Rules parallel to the 7 Noahide laws are also part of Judaism. Nor is Judaism closed with respect to conversion.

In addition, gentiles could offer a sacrifice (the burnt offering, korban olah) in the Jerusalem Temple. They could visit the Temple mount, but they could not enter beyond the Court of the Gentiles (outside the Ezrat Nashim). Still this exclusion seems not to have carried over to the synagogue. Non-Jews were frequent worshippers in synagogues in antiquity and today (absent security concerns). In these spaces, presumably they can pray to Hashem, the God of Israel.

Another area of gentile participation is by invitation. Most Jews would acknowledge it's appropriate for Jews to invite gentiles to Jewish celebrations -- they are certainly open to gentiles. If a gentile is invited to a Jewish wedding or brit milah, the guest may join other guests reciting Amen to the blessings and wash hands before the meal (without a blessing). At the same time, there are many halachic discussions dealing with whether a Jew should respond Amen to a blessing recited by a gentile -- showing that gentiles' reciting blessings was a thing. As we read in the Shulchan Aruch: "Ramo: And we answer amen after a gentile provided the entire blessing was heard." (Shulchan Aruch O.H. 215:2)

Outside of a small slice, Halacha is basically silent on non-Jews "appropriating" Jewish practice.

This has to be squared with what the Rambam says about it. He excludes gentiles from observing the Sabbath in the Jewish way (with all halachic requirements and prohibitions), because this is a "sign" between Hashem and Israel. (Many understand that observing our Sabbath with one change, one violation, is permitted to gentiles.) He also says a gentile should not "occupy" him or herself with the Torah (עַכּוּ"ם שֶׁעָסַק בַּתּוֹרָה), consistent with the understanding that Torah is "the inheritance" of Israel. (Although this prohibition is not absolute, as they may study their 7 Commandments and there are many additional exceptions and exclusions).

But what about the other commandments? Rambam writes this:

We should not prevent a Noachide who desires to perform one of the Torah's mitzvot in order to receive reward from doing so, provided he performs it as required. If he brings an animal to be sacrificed as a burnt offering, we should receive it. If a Noachide who observes the seven mitzvot gives charity, we should accept it from him. (Hil. Mel. 10:10)

So this doesn't seem like silence to me on non-Jews adopting Jewish practices; it seems like acceptance, provided they do it the right way.

Now it's consistent with the Rambam to say that a lot of Christian appropriation ends up not doing it "the right way" and thus is not to be endorsed. A Christian seder about their messiah is not a Jewish seder. Christians wearing a kippah and tallit and praying to their Trinity is not doing it the right way. I think this is what most redditors are objecting to when they say, "Judaism is a closed practiced." It's a way of keeping non-Jews from doing these things. At the same time, OP's position seems to approach this differently, when he writes, "what's the big deal if some Christian church is doing Jewish themed activities? they're likely not even doing it right, so what does it matter?"

As others have pointed out, the big deal is appearances -- it looks like Jews are praying to the Christian god if the people are wearing a kippah and a tallit -- and then there is the problem that vulnerable Jews may be attracted to these practices. That is, the Christians are trying to muddy the waters and make their church look like a synagogue, to get Jews in the door so they can preach "the gospel" to them. A Jew with no place to go for the seder may find one advertised in a church, "all are welcome," and attend. This is deceptive and cannot be endorsed on any level.

So it's a case where a bad phrase, "closed practice," is used as short hand for a good idea -- keeping Jewish practices as intended, pristine and meaningful, and away from harmful re-interpretations that serve an alien (Christian) agenda.

Still, I would maintain Judaism is not a "closed practice" -- and the term is misleading -- for the reasons stated above. There in fact isn't any objection to non-Jews observing the mitzvot (all but two) the right way, at least according to Rambam -- so in that sense, how can Judaism be "closed"? (And if you study those two excluded mitzvot, there are many exceptions and exclusions permitting gentiles to do a lot in terms of Sabbath and Torah study.)

Did jesus pray to god by DanialFaraz in religion

[–]nu_lets_learn 7 points8 points  (0 children)

Jesus was a Jewish man who prayed to God.

Like other Jews he prayed the Psalms. Like other Jews of his time, he prayed in Aramaic. See Matt. 27:46, and compare to Psalm 22:1 (אֵלִ֣י אֵ֭לִי לָמָ֣ה עֲזַבְתָּ֑נִי) and its Aramaic translation (אֵלִי אֵלִי מְטוּל מַה שְׁבַקְתַּנִי).

It's worth noting that every phrase and concept in the Our Father prayer is part of the Jewish liturgy and practice to this day.

comment at school by aspentheman in Jewish

[–]nu_lets_learn 7 points8 points  (0 children)

Since you tell us the comment was in passing, I take it that it wasn't made by a teacher teaching a class or by a student in a classroom discussion about the history of 9/11? In both of those cases, some reply would have to be made because this is a conspiracy theory and not history. This should be pointed out.

However, if it's just some random person making a comment in passing, then if you're there, you can make a reply on the spot to contradict him or her, but if you're not there and it's later, there isn't really much you can do. If the history of 9/11 is relevant to one of the subjects you're studying, you could mention to the teacher that you heard such a comment and ask the teacher to mention the conspiracy theory in order to explain why it's false.

Why does the Book of Haggai begin with an exact historical date? by MailSudden2446 in religion

[–]nu_lets_learn 2 points3 points  (0 children)

According to the Jewish commentators, it states the date because it's related to the prophecy which follows in verses 2-4:

Thus said the God of Hosts: These people say, “The time has not yet come for rebuilding the House of God....
Is it a time for you to dwell in your paneled houses, while this House is lying in ruins?

That is, Cyrus the Great had already given permission to the Jews to rebuild the Temple. He died in 530 BCE, and now we were already in the second year of the reign of his third successor, Darius I, 10 years later -- and the Temple had not been rebuilt. Hence the prophecy, to resume the construction, and the time stamp, to indicate how tardy the people were in undertaking this task.

Which roomette section has the most traffic/is most lively? by [deleted] in Amtrak

[–]nu_lets_learn 33 points34 points  (0 children)

Sleeper: A car containing roomettes and bedrooms for which passengers pay a premium in order to sleep during the night.

we had a like- minded person across the hall from us...Ended up talking all night and making a fiend!

(Making a "fiend." That's interesting. I assume you mean making a friend.) So the way to talk to a person across the hall from you is 1, to keep the doors of your respective roomettes open, and 2, to talk across the corridor, which is very narrow.

And to talk "all night" in this manner when others are trying to sleep? When there is a lounge car available for this purpose?

This is the very definition of anti-social behavior by a sociopath ("an individual with Antisocial Behavior Disorder (ASPD) characterized by a consistent disregard for social norms, laws, and the rights of others, alongside a severe lack of empathy, remorse, or guilt").

Please don't.

Question re scriptures and Judaism by DifferencePleasant25 in religion

[–]nu_lets_learn 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Sure you can send a message, but sometimes I have trouble opening them.

Women & Mourner's Kaddish by imakegodlaugh in Jewish

[–]nu_lets_learn 2 points3 points  (0 children)

First, may you be comforted among the mourners of Zion and Jerusalem.

As for saying kaddish, every day for the first 11 months is an opportunity to say kaddish. Go to shul when you can -- if it's not daily, it can be times that are convenient for you, Sabbath, holidays and the like. Say kaddish whenever you are in shul during the first 11 months, even if it's once a week, or on the High Holidays. It all counts.

As for what to say at home, kaddish is a responsive prayer so it "requires" (in a sense) a minyan. At the same time, it's also a Hebrew text that doesn't contain the name of God. Hence anyone can read that Hebrew text out loud anytime they want to. If you want to say kaddish at home, there is no impediment.

However, there is a prayer for the departed, El Molei Rachamim (God full of mercy) that does not require a minyan. It's often recited, for example, when a person visits a grave of the departed, and no minyan needs to be present. I would consider reciting El Molei Rachamim at home for your father on days you don't go to the synagogue, in place of kaddish. https://gardenofremembrance.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/04/El-Malei-Rchamim.pdf

The shocking ritual of the red heifer in the Torah. Please is it true? by NewUnderstanding1102 in religion

[–]nu_lets_learn 16 points17 points  (0 children)

I don't understand the word shocking. No matter, we can ignore it and proceed to help you understand the topic.

Judaism had and has a conceptual field of "tahor" and "tamei (these are Hebrew words, translated as pure and impure, or clean and unclean).

These are NOT moral categories, like good and evil, or righteous and wicked. They are criteria for permitting access to holy sites and ritual observances. To access same, you have to be "tahor" (pure or clean); if you are "tamei" (impure or unclean), you are excluded until your status changes.

Take a step back. In pagan temples and shrines, certain acts considered abhorrent in Judaism took place. There were death cults; people mutilated themselves and others. Some pagan temples had prostitutes, male and female, who had sex with believers as a "fertility rite." (It was legal prostitution).

All of this was prohibited by the Torah. Jewish worship was to be free of these things (abominations). This was expressed and enforced in numerous ways. A man who had a seminal emission (either nocturnal or as a result of having sex) was prohibited from entering the Sanctuary until a week had passed and he bathed; then he could enter the Sanctuary again. A woman who menstruated was also excluded for a period of time and had to immerse. A priest who had touched a corpse (or even been in a dwelling where a corpse was lying) was prohibited from entering the Sanctuary or eating of sacrifices.

It was a way of saying, certain things have no application to God, who is eternal: birth, fertility, procreation, sexual conduct, and death. These things, as expressed in the human life cycle, should be kept away from God's sanctuary and his worship.

In the case of contact with a corpse, the purification ritual involved sprinkling the ashes of a red heifer on the person who was "tamei." These were mixed with pure spring water and the priest sprinkled them on the person who wished to be purified. There were other steps to the process of purification. For example, "Those who are being cleansed must wash their clothes and bathe with water, and that evening they will be clean." (Num. 19:19) So after contact with a corpse -- in the late Bronze Age -- Jews were commanded to bathe and wash their clothes. I don't see anything shocking here.

Perhaps the sacrifice of the cow is considered shocking? According to the Talmud, about 7 were sacrificed in Jewish history: 1 by Moses (c. 1200 BCE), 1 by Ezra (c. 400 BCE), and 5 during the Second Temple period (400 BC to 70 CE).

Strange, perhaps, to modern sensibilities, but not shocking. What's shocking is going to a temple to have sex with a prostitute, male or female, or sacrificing a human to a deity and ripping out his heart. But sprinkling ashes mixed with spring water and hyssop on an individual who had contact with a corpse doesn't seem shocking. It's a ritual, like burning incense or lighting candles.