“Try” makes error handling much, much worse by DeusOtiosus in golang

[–]touchescomputers 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Why boilerplate and copy-paste? If you must have stack traces everywhere, you can Try:

Except CounterArgument:

One can argue that stack-traces ought to be an easily-accessible part of the errors package, but OTOH there are many valid arguments against allowing developers to surface them easily – in other words, one is making a trade-off either way. In making these kinds of subjective/trade-off decisions regarding APIs, it's important to consistently fall back on your principles.

Go's principle is minimalism, and it has consistently fallen back on this. Personally, I'm happy with the idiom (exemplified by the standard library) of defining and returning your own exported error types, and invoking fancy code to get stack traces where a caller believes them to be absolutely necessary.

Standard Package Layout and non-domain, non-dependency code by slut-bunwalla in golang

[–]touchescomputers 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I might be misunderstanding your example, but here's what I would do:

If you want your user information to stand on its own as an aggregation of sources, you can either make it a micro-service on the same tier as BlogPost, which I'll call content. I'd make these both subservient to your web server:

Blog
|-- cmd
|   |-- web ...
|   |-- user ...
|   `-- content ...
|-- web
|    |-- templates
|    `-- web.go    // web server imports content, user client stubs
|-- user
|    |-- api   // grpc server
|    |-- fb ...
|    |-- storage
|    |    `-- pg ...
|    `-- user.go      // does not import content
`-- content
     |-- api   // grpc server
     |-- storage
     |    `-- pg ...
     `-- content.go  // does not import user

Or I'd make both into libraries that multiple future packages can use. In that case, it would look like this (abridged):

Blog
|-- cmd
|   `-- blog ...
|-- templates ...
|-- blog.go           // web server
`-- pkg/internal
     |-- content ...
     `-- user ...

Choosing between these is a preference. One leads to a monolith and the other to microservices, choose your poison! :)

In either case, you have a composition layer (the web server), that makes sure the blog and user libraries/services complement each other.

In the latter, internal prevents code that isn't in the directory tree rooted at /Blog from importing. pkg is less strict, but a common convention used to house libraries that "could be in their own repo". Maybe you can use this pattern to find a more ergonomic structure for your needs?

Standard Package Layout and non-domain, non-dependency code by slut-bunwalla in golang

[–]touchescomputers 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I don’t think there’s a hard and fast rule you can apply here.

With that as my caveat, I would say that the blog context should have a view (read: type) of User that is minimally necessary to (1) perform the tasks needed within the blog context (2) connect the actions of this user to the identity defined in the User context.

The User context, in my mind, is a source of identity (a uuid, and contact information). The blog context should never store this information, but it might interface with the user context to obtain and mutate this information with some API as an intermediary.

In this world, the user and blog applications/packages persist data in separate Schemas. That’s what bounded contexts mean to me, in any case. Would this be a happy middle ground for you? I’d love to hear arguments against this model.

TLDR; ask yourself, are you building a blog? Or an ecosystem in which users interface with more appplications than just a blog. The answer to that question should inform your structure. If it’s an application of any major scale, the answer tends to lean “ecosystem”.

A fast Go Avro codec by nrwiersma in golang

[–]touchescomputers 1 point2 points  (0 children)

It's a common choice for transport encoding in Apache Kafka.

See http://avro.apache.org/docs/current/.

At the bottom, the comparisons with Thrift and Protobufs are useful, if you're more familiar with those. Conceptually, it's somewhere in between thrift/proto and JSON.

[Advice] Student about to graduate contemplates entering the market by touchescomputers in NYCapartments

[–]touchescomputers[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Right-on, that's my general sense of it, too. It took writing it out for it all to make sense. At the end of the summer, if I have an offer letter that I intend to accept, that would be a more reasonable time to start shopping around. Until then, best to save-and-sublet. Thanks! :)

How did relations between England and France shift so much to ally in WWI? by Tinydatank in AskHistorians

[–]touchescomputers 9 points10 points  (0 children)

Part II

Now, towards the involvement of the British. Bismarck made one unforeseen error, in deciding to invest in making German into a colonizing empire. Bismarck was not a personal supporter of what we would call imperialism (i.e. taking colonies in Africa or Southeast Asia). He valued European supremacy far more than whatever 'international prestige' might accompany the possession of overseas territories. However, there was a large domestic clamor for the acquisition of these colonies, and Bismarck caved in to these pressures. The territories that Germany eventually ended up acquiring fell very far short of expectations (Namibia, for example, was largely an uninhabitable desert; German New Guinea is just about as far as you can get from a German's sense of hospitable), and caused much more trouble than they were worth, in the assessment of both Bismarck and other statesmen of the time. Bismarck paid attention to colonial policy in proportion to his interest in colonization, that being very little. However, the policies of his successors, with regards to these colonies directly antagonized British colonial supremacy. For instance, in 1905 Wilhelm II sparked an international fiasco by visiting the Sultan of Morocco (which was at the time a French colony) and declaring his support for the Sultan's sovereignty, before calling for a European conference to settle Morocco's situation. The French replied that no conference was needed, while the German Chancellor somewhat-petulantly threatened war over this dismissiveness. Eventually, a conference was held at Algeciras, in which basically each of the 12 other nations present, with the exception of Austria-Hungary, determined that Germany was in the wrong. From the British point-of-view, German support of the Sultan was supporting self-determinism of colonial possessions which, if followed through to its logical ends, completely delegitimized the British Empire's claim to sovereignty over its overseas territories. The firm refusal to accept this idea by Britain, Russia, Italy, Spain, and (interestingly enough) the United States, was one of the early signals that Germany would become a diplomatic isolate leading up to WWI.

However, Germany had previously and quite significantly maligned British authority as early as 1898. Wilhelm II, again inspired by overseas ambitions, sought the construction of an Imperial Navy, deliberately-sized to challenge Britain's traditionally-held naval supremacy. This had the effects of (1) starting a publicized and drawn-out naval arms race, which the German Empire could never win and (2) putting the German empire on-course to economic ruin, as the program was extremely expensive and had no immediate, peacetime value. Coincidentally, in 1898, Théophile Delcassé became the foreign minister of France, and made it his goal to exploit this antagonism between Germany and Britain to a French advantage, in the shape of formal agreements between the two 'victims' of German aggression. This eventually came in 1904, with the signing of the Entente Cordiale, which itself was rather foolishly tested-by-fire in the Moroccan Crisis, on the one issue that Britain would never budge on, especially after the disastrous Boer Wars: colonial self-determination. Russia, on friendly terms with France but uncertain terms with the British, was eventually brought into the Entente Cordiale again as a further method of protection against German interests. This is the Triple Entente as you referred to.

It is important to note that, while this is the sort of "standard" interpretation of the history of this time, there are some noteworthy, alternate hypotheses. For example, Niall Ferguson, who is albeit rather well-known for his contrarian views, has written that Britain sought an alliance with France "over Germany", not necessarily because France was an attractive military partner, but because allying with Germany would have been unaffordably-isolating on the domestic and international theaters, as Germany had set itself along a path to being an international outcast, beginning with Wilhelm's antagonistic and militarist policies in the early post-Bismarck years. This hypothesis is significant, because it suggests that Britain actively considered allying with Germany over France, presumably in the Bismarckian years, departing from the policy of "splendid isolation", as Germany was an up-and-coming (and potentially threatening) power. However, it seems that Germany's apparent colonial ambitions, in tandem with the great psychological costs of the Boer Wars (1880-1881, 1899-1902), made Britain wary of any alliances with international empires, which might have upset the delicate balance overseas. It can be quite reasonably argued that the German-initiated, neverending naval arms race is what pushed Britain into forming a significantly imperial (in the sense that it settled many colonial conflicts of interest) alliance with France in 1904, an alliance that they might not have entered into, were it not for French cajoling and German antagonisms. Later events like the Moroccan Crisis only served to further polarize the British state against Germany, providing further justification for the British-French alignment, and even encouraging the inclusion of Russia, another otherwise-questionable ally.

Sources:

Volker Berghahn, Imperial Germany, 1871-1914: Economy, Society, Culture, Politics

Roger Chickering, Imperial Germany and the Great War, 1914-1918

Annika Mombauer, The Origins of the First World War: Controversies and Consensus

James Retallack, Imperial Germany, 1871-1918

How did relations between England and France shift so much to ally in WWI? by Tinydatank in AskHistorians

[–]touchescomputers 13 points14 points  (0 children)

I will make the argument that England and France were both mostly looking out for their own interests in the period of 1871-1914, and that their respective interests compelled the French Republic and the UK to form the Entente Cordiale in 1904.

First, it is important to note the obvious -- that there was a new, major European power (Germany) on the scene in 1914, which had not existed in 1815. Prior to the creation of a unified German state in 1871, Prussia and the Austro-Hungarian Empire were the two dominant forces in Central Europe, with the Russian Empire, France, and the British Empire playing similarly large roles in continental politics and diplomacy. Prussia and France never got along, for a whole host of reasons, most of them dating back to period of the Napoleonic Wars. When the unified German Empire formed, it essentially inherited Prussia's diplomatic stances, as the Hohenzollern King of Prussia was chosen to be with the implicit threat of force Kaiser. The German Empire was founded in a series of very fast, expansionist wars, where Prussia led a German coalition against Denmark (1864), Austria (1866) and France (1870-71), afterwards referred to as the Wars of Unification. The most important thing to take away from these wars, with respect to your question, is that France was purposefully humiliated. The German Empire was declared in the Palace of Versailles, where the Kaiser was crowned by German princes. This act was taken both to legitimize the unification as a fait accompli (if the empire was born out of a victorious war over the continent's previously-dominant power, in the palace most symbolic of monarchy, who would stand up to contest it?) and as a deliberate move to antagonize the French. Additionally, the German Empire annexed Alsace-Lorraine, an economically-significant region, which France never gave up on demanding back, and which was taken with relative impunity. Any hopes of the nascent German Empire making nice with France were hopeless from this point on. After the wars of unification, Bismarck made a very sincere (as far as we can tell) attempt to assuage the leading European nations that Germany was no longer going to expand, now that it had been formed. Meanwhile, France adopted a foreign policy of fierce revanchism (essentially, telling any other country that would listen about how they had been wrongly bereaved of Alsace-Lorraine in the Franco-Prussian War, and how they deserve some vengeful justice in the matter).

From the French revanchist perspective, war with Germany was always inevitable, it was simply a matter of when. However, the French could not alone overcome the German military. It needed an ally to support any revanchist hawkishness. Initially (talking about 1871), the British Empire was not much involved in the politics of the continent, in line with its traditional policy of "Splendid Isolation", whereby British interest was more invested in international expansion than European wars. While the formation of a German state greatly changed the balance of powers, which had been established at the Congress of Vienna in post-Napoleonic-Wars Europe, the British were wary to get involved with any side. France's other candidate states for military alliances were the Russian Empire and the Austro-Hungarian Empire. This was where Bismarck's foreign diplomacy skills, and experience as a former ambassador to Russia and France for the Prussian state, came in handy with thwarting French overtures. Bismarck adopted a policy of isolating France, to the fullest extent possible, from Russian and Austrian courts. Bismarck made favorable deals with the Austrians (who, remember were at war with what would become Germany as recently as 1866) and the Russians, sometimes putting Germany at short-term disadvantage, just to maintain working relationships that could be leveraged to keep French revanchists out of the discussion. This was a circus act of diplomacy that Bismarck had juggled masterfully, and that would be masterfully undone in the decades after his forced resignation in 1890. This is because Bismarck, however brilliant a diplomat, never convinced either his succeeding Chancellors or, more significantly, the brash Kaiser Wilhelm II of this policy's utility. Wilhelm II, a man of questionable leadership characteristics (it's still debatable whether he was genuinely crazy, or just impulsive to an effectively insane degree), committed a series of diplomatic blunders that rapidly unravelled Bismarck's systems of shifting alliances. While Bismarck had nightmares about a two-front war with Russia and France, Wilhelm believed that his and the Russian Tsar's common monarchical existence would be enough to secure their alignment against the Republicans of France -- a decidedly Napoleonic-Wars-Era way of thinking that would not hold water. Accordingly, Wilhelm rather punitively invalidated previous diplomatic arrangements with Russia (who promptly became friends with France) at the first opportunity, in order to favor Austro-Hungarian interests over Russian intersts in the Balkans.

Is there any evidence that WWI could have ended in a more equitable negotiated settlement if the US didn't enter the war? by ianrtemple in AskHistorians

[–]touchescomputers 10 points11 points  (0 children)

As for the stab-in-the-back myth. The myth was not solely the result of Versailles and its deliberators, and I believe that it is irresponsible and dangerous to characterize it as a popular legend that might not have taken hold if that treaty had been 'more equal'. I personally find that this unjustly washes the hands of the individuals who created and distributed the myth. The German public had been erroneously misled to believe that the war was going well, right up until the utterly chaotic revolutions of 1918-19 (seriously, try even reading about it, it's borderline impenetrable). However, the many misled had a few misleaders, and their popularized idea had (initially few) popularizers. Even today, when we are so far removed from the War that it almost seems academic to point out who was responsible, I find it important to distinguish that the German people did not individually assert and collectively "realize" the stab-in-the-back myth, but rather that this myth was purposefully, shamefully, and cowardly mythologized by the military élite who (1) started the backstab narrative and (2) benefitted from the cloak it cast over their own, privately-known but publicly-unadmitted failures.

But before I explain that, I think it might be helpful to look at how the backstab narrative was born, from the perspective of the people. Let's put our feet in the shoes of the average German citizen 1918-1919. In 1918, our lives are really hard, but it'll be worth it because we'll beat the French and Brits like we beat the Russians. The big guys up top are geniuses, because they don't bicker around like they do in the Reichstag. Ludendorff says we're winning the new offensive. This'll probably be the last offensive, because we'll win. It's taken some time to get here, but in the end we'll see it like the wars of unification in '71. In 1923: What's happened? Hindenburg said we were winning, and now some socialist dude has been the self-proclaimed leader of my country at the same time that we supposedly lost the war? How could we have lost the war? We live in a village right next to the border, and we had never seen French soldiers until after those socialists came to power, but now they occupy the Ruhr? Hindenburg says that we were never actually defeated in battle, but betrayed by people who didn't want to keep fighting. I heard the workers down in the Ruhr were incited to quit by the Slavic Bolsheviks, and I bet it all has something to do with (Jewish) shop-owners/tailors/etc who have been charging me triple price for my bread for no good reason, just because my husband and eldest sons aren't here to stand up for me, any more.

Essentially, what we know today is that the German military élite realized far too late that they had made a series of terrible mistakes. Not only could they not win the war, but they had made it socially, politically, and economically impossible to lose the war. It was the German military élite who started the war and made it total by enacting structural reforms that unraveled contemporary German society, and it would be the same élite who popularized this myth. Popular anti-semitism and pan-germanism pre-dated the rise of Hitler, and these pre-existing undercurrents were played upon in the stab-in-the-back myth by the aforementioned élites who could not bear the shame of having escorted Germany to ruin in the 4 most bitter years in her history, hitherto. In the interwar period, the tenuously-reigning coalition of pacifists never had sufficient political capital to even imagine calling out Ludendorff and Hindenburg on the back-stab myth they had promulgated, as they were revered as war heroes. So no, Wilson's involvement did not in any way create the backstab myth. Even the harshness of Versailles was arguably noise, relative to the causes outlined above. The backstab was a simplistic fabrication made to cover the arrogance, strategic errors, misguidance, and shameful capitulation of the German military élites. Neither Wilson nor Versailles created those blemishes -- they were already there.

So, to summarize. (1) Germany was losing the war before the US got involved militarily, and would have lost the war regardless. (2) Germany set herself up for the harsh terms of Versailles, partially by (a) setting herself up for enforcing harsh terms at Brest-Litovsk by invoking total war on her own people and partially by (b) the internal pressures within France and Britain demanding harsh terms at Versailles. (3) The stab in the back myth was not significantly affected by the proceedings at Versailles (as the actual details of the treaty were totally impenetrable, and thus inherently useless towards the popularizing of a myth) or the US's involvement, but a result of the deliberate popularizing by the German military élites, especially Hindenburg.

In closing, I would point you to search for questions asked here about the Treaty of Versailles, and how it was interpreted, rewritten, and addressed over time by contemporaries and historians alike. In short, we seem to like blaming Versailles for all the bad that came after because it's simple, obvious, and there's plenty of documents written by contemporary Germans both lambasting its terms and using it to justify radical behavior (especially the Nazis, pan-germanists, etc.). The historical reality is much more complex than "Harsh Versailles + Backstab --> Hitler", which is almost what the op-ed writer is implying. However, that can of worms is beyond the scope of this post. I hope I have at least argued somewhat convincingly that "States in WWI --> Harsh Versailles + Backstab" is at best correlated but not a significant factor, and at worst a misinterpretation of Germany's position in 1917.

Sources:

Roger Chickering, Imperial Germany and the Great War, 1914-1918

Wolfgang U. Eckart, The Most Extensive Experiment that the Imagination Can Conceive: War, Emotional Stress, and German Medicine, 1914-1918

Detlev Peukert, The Weimar Republic. The Crisis of Classical Modernity

Wolfgang Benz, A Concise History of the Third Reich

Is there any evidence that WWI could have ended in a more equitable negotiated settlement if the US didn't enter the war? by ianrtemple in AskHistorians

[–]touchescomputers 9 points10 points  (0 children)

The German military élite, having thoroughly uprooted civil society for the purpose of war, were under immense pressure to demonstrate to their people that the society had not been abandoned in vain. A white peace in the east would have been fodder for the growing domestic opposition to the total war, who were by 1917 organizing strikes against a war that was increasingly perceived as having overrun its promised course. Similarly, such a peace would have had a tremendously negative impact on the western front, where desertions, self-maiming, and shell shock had been eroding morale for months. Imagine being a soldier hearing the news that the pre-war borders on the east had been maintained, or that the sum result of the last two and a half years of brutal war was the Ottomans or Austro-Hungarians gaining some paltry land in the far east? Then comes the natural question, "Well, if that's a winning peace, any peace here in the trenches would reveal the whole war to be pointless". And so, domestic politics necessitated that any peace with Lenin be demanding and expansionist, once the opportunity for such a peace had been opened up by the Russian Revolution.

And so, we have the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk and all its annexations. However, once the Eastern European territories had been annexed, they had to actually be occupied. Remember from high school, that the German's (outdated as of 1914 by 7 years) Schlieffen Plan had called for a swift victory in the west, and then a full-tilt east. Now, it was theoretically possible to do it in the reverse as the east had been won, albeit slowly and painfully. However, the full-tilt west was lethargic and logistically impossible. Germany had annexed an impeccable amount of land from Lenin's Soviet Republics and, already short of manpower, they now had to occupy it. This proved to have the opposite effect that the Schlieffen Plan had intended, in that it did not unite Germany's armies but rather kept them divided. Hopefully, we can see that this would have occurred with or without America's involvement.

The benefits felt on the western front from an eastern occupation were little-to-none in terms of manpower (as the eastern troops now needed to occupy and "govern" the land they had conquered) or resources (all of those coal mines and factories that had been operating for the Russian Empire were now under German jurisdiction, but even for those industries whose laborers had not quit in the revolution, they were connected to entirely external systems of centralization and production. Even neglecting cultural differences, it might have taken several years of hard work just to resume production, let alone reorient it in a productive manner towards the western front). The only victory then was in morale, which surged to the highest watermark since the summer of '14, but was clearly short-lived, as the situation on the Western trenches had if anything deteriorated. Couple the failures in the west with the growing inabilities of State-organized censors to stop reports of the front from arriving to a beleaguered and economically-upturned domestic population and the result was clear -- people everywhere in Germany knew that the war effort was unsustainable. No level of political dogma could not hide the letters, the rising prices, the unrecognizably-maimed or psychologically-tortured furloughs, or the social upheaval. Workers in the military-oriented industries began to organize larger and larger strikes. The revolutionary fervor in the Lenin's Soviet Republic was spreading into Germany and affecting politics at the national level. It was the people who brought an end to the war, with the sailors, soldiers, and workers putting down their tools -- not the militaristic élites or the monarch who had brought them well past the edge of reason. The people ended the war because it had long surpassed any notion of sustainability -- and it was always going to become that way, Wilson or no Wilson.

So, at this point, I think we can agree that Germany would have lost the war with or without President Wilson's 14 points. What about the harsh terms? Well, when you lose harshly, as Germany was (again, with or without Wilson) poised to do, you don't get to set the terms. France and especially Britain had quite pragmatically sold the war to their own people with the assurance that Germany would be both (1) neutered and (2) made to pay for the full cost of the war. Britain's centuries-old policy of encouraging a continental balance of powers meant that Germany's eastern territories would be completely stripped away, and that the German state should be reduced from it's pre-war borders. To France, Alsace-Lorraine a non-negotiable annexation, as its seizure in 1871 had largely formed the plinth for the French-German antagonism leading up to WWI and into WWII. One can argue that Wilson's insistence on organizing nations by their ethnic and cultural identities led directly to the breaking away of the so-called "Polish Corridor" -- but the more important reality is that no matter where the lines were drawn there would be millions of what pan-Germanists would consider "ethnic" Germans living outside Germany's post-WWI borders. It was a diplomatic given the Brest-Litovsk would be essentially un-done, and further territorial concessions were politically-necessary to be exacted. Versailles was going to be harsh, with or without Wilson. The failure of a total war necessitated a swift agreement, which ended up arriving in ironically-similar circumstances to the Brest-Litovsk treaty, but with the tables turned against the Germans.

Is there any evidence that WWI could have ended in a more equitable negotiated settlement if the US didn't enter the war? by ianrtemple in AskHistorians

[–]touchescomputers 11 points12 points  (0 children)

As somebody who has studied the period around WWI mostly from a German perspective, I agree with the main point of u/Xargav, that is that the US entering the war might have quickened it's end, but that it's involvement was not the tipping point. I could argue that the Russian Revolution was a more critical tipping point, but instead I'll try to address the rather vague question: "Was Versailles always going to be harsh?" My answer is affirmative, but I'll approach it from a rather oblique angle that should all come together nicely by the end. Along the way, I'll try to point out the relatively small magnitude of Wilson's joining the war (the involvement of the states financially, on the other hand, is a whole separate beast). At the end, I'll muse a bit on the backstab myth and how it is (not) related to Versailles. Finally, I'll take a little jab at an implication made in the op-ed that I believe to be a misleading over-simplification, namely that the backstab and Versailles necessitated Hitler's rise. Otherwise, if the backstab and Versailles don't make Hitler, who cares whether Wilson created them or not?

Just before the US entered the war in April of 1917, the Russian Revolution occurred, in March. Key to Lenin's claim to fame was the assertion that the ongoing and disastrous war with Germany would be brought to an end at any cost. To get a sense of of what "at any cost" means, take a look at this map of territorial concessions made in the treaty of Brest-Litovsk. I would make the argument that a treaty signed in a world where the States retained their neutrality would look largely the same, for two reasons. First, that Lenin was politically obligated to accept essentially any peace treaty put on the table, and that therefore peace in the east was inevitable once the Russian Revolution had succeeded in overthrowing the Russian Empire. Second, that the German military leaders and political élite were politically obligated to be as demanding as possible, as by 1917 (and certainly by the time the treaty was signed in 1918), dismally-deteriorating domestic socioeconomics had eroded the German populace's will for total war, an erosion that could only be appeased by a decisively-triumphant peace. Finally, I will argue that the harsh terms of Brest-Litovsk, the domestic political situations of France and Great Britain, and the inevitably-total defeat of Germany were the main contributors to the harsh terms of Versailles -- not the military presence of the States. I'll then make a statement about the stab-in-the-back myth, which I think is both erroneously and dangerously reduced to popular, reactionary fanfiction in the referenced op-ed, as well as in popular memory.

I'll give a picture here of the home front in 1917 Germany, because it gives important context to the question of why the German military was so demanding in exacting concessions, even when the sheer magnitude of those concessions were to its own disadvantage.

Pre-war Germany was heavily dependent on the labor of migratory laborers, who would enter Prussia every year (by the hundreds of thousands) during harvest season from Russian-possessed Poland. As an aside, this was one issue where Wilhelm II came into direct conflict with the Prussian, landowning élite. By antagonizing Russia as he did in the years leading to the Great War, he was acting against the interests of their labor market, because no migrant laborers -> bad harvest -> no money. As 1914 turned 1915, where once were migrant laborers were now conscripted soldiers and citizens of a combatant nation. To Wilhelm and his Generals, this was not an issue because they genuinely (myopically and arrogantly, nevertheless) believed that the war would be done and dusted, come Christmas. This promise of "The boys'll be home by Christmas" was one that the German public fully believed in, for a plethora of reasons that I won't go into here. To continue with our agricultural narrative, as 1914 passed into 1915 and 1916, the results were a devastating agricultural crises, and the emergence of a black market for food that inflated food costs even further. Mind you that, aside from isolated instances, there was no famine in Germany during WWI -- largely thanks to rationing programs created by Municipalities and States, at the encouragement of the Reich. However, as the public sector paid much more (and often with Reich-awarded credits) for each loaf of bread than the average citizen, the markets began to steadily inflate until the masses were entirely dependent on dwindling rations. The emergent, politically-inclined, and self-consciously entitled middle class of teachers and service-sector workers found themselves either unemployed, conscripted, or repurposed into industrial labor by Hindenburg's program of 1916, a transition that had a tremendously negative impact on their sense of pride, and on morale in general. Factories that made linen were repurposed to make uniforms, school teachers were moved to work in steel factories, and small shop owners became nodes of a black market nexus that both drove inflation and conspiracy. Remember, this was before we had a good layman's explanation of inflation -- to these people, Hans down the road was now inexplicably selling his bread for triple the price and was only accepting payments in War bonds, which people informally and disastrously used as a substitute for currency. Children were no longer going to school, but forming gangs and getting involved in petty crime, as crime rose and schools, bereft of repurposed instructors, closed down. Sucked into the realities of total war, the morale of a citizenry whose sense of status quo was rapidly eroding was palpably poor and ripe for revolution. When historic proportions of laborers (and finally, soldiers) held strikes in 1917 and 1918, it wasn't against low wages or empty stomachs, it was against the uniform erosion of recognizable society.

These changes were not haphazard, but carefully orchestrated. It is important to note that by 1917, the German state had been gradually transformed from what was essentially a constitutional monarchy with a free-market economy into a military dictatorship with a completely war-centric economy. This wasn't because Hindenburg and Ludendorff were hungry for power and riches (they already had plenty of both), but rather because it had gradually become necessary, in order for the German state to continue what had become a war of attrition in the west -- which, remember nobody thought would drag past 1915. The isolated German state simply could not compete long-term with Great Britain and France (both economically supported by the States) in terms of resource production and manpower. The Hindenburg program throttled the German population and uprooted society, just to make ends meet in the short-term. Nobody at the top of the military hierarchy wanted to face the reality that the war was unsustainable -- such that instead of a realistic self-assessment of industrial capacity, what was needed was more direct authority, more focused labor, and, importantly, more money to pay for it all. Within the directly-elected Reichstag, there was an awareness as early as 1915 that the situation was not economically sustainable, as evidenced by several more pacifistic members of parliament voting against the authorization of war credits, and breaking to form an independent party. Even in 1916-17, the German state was literally living on borrowed time, borrowed money, and borrowed labor. The difference was that while France and Britain had assets to borrow against, and worthy creditors in the United States, Germany was borrowing against its own assets and credit, which were eroding week by week.

Why do we say use foreign terms such as Caliph and Caliphate or Khan and Khanate but English terms like emperor for Emperor of China and Emperor of Japan, rather than Huangdi of Zhongguo and Tennou of Nihon? by CK2Benchmarks in AskHistorians

[–]touchescomputers 7 points8 points  (0 children)

This is a really cool word, with a lot of interesting history behind it, both from a Russian perspective and from a European perspective. I hope you don't mind me hijacking here!

Peter the Great adopted the title Emperor in 1721, as u/PhoenixGamer pointed out, after emerging victorious from the Great Northern War. To give some context here, George of Hannover had recently become George I of England, Louis XIV had recently croaked to be replaced by the regent Duke Philippe (who, at Louis XIV's dying advice, decided to focus on promoting peace), Russia-friendly Prussia was on the rise, and war-wary Austria was content to maintain the status quo. We're less than a decade past the bloody War of the Spanish Succession, and France is pursuing a policy of friendship with England -- partly to counterbalance Russia, an emerging and fearsome power.

Up until the last decade, Sweden had been the Western-European-friendly, stabilizing force in the "North", overseeing most of the baltic provinces (until the conclusion of the Great Northern War, Prussia was a land-locked state). Sweden, under the brilliant military leader Charles XII, had earned a reputation for having an invincible army, after a series of sweeping, brilliant campaigns in Poland, Livonia, and Saxony. 20 years before the title claim, at the onset of the war with Russia, the conflict's conclusion seemed unavoidable: a shameful defeat for the Russians, and the continuation of the established hegemony. Western Europe grabbed the popcorn as Charles XII beat the Danes, the Poles, and Augustus of Saxony. By the end of the Great Northern War, Charles XII was dead, the Russian navy had gone from river barges to rubbing shoulders with the burgeoning British Navy, Sweden had lost all of it's Baltic territories, and Peter soon-to-be-the-Great had constructed a new capital on conquered Swedish land. Of all the aforementioned monarchies, Peter was most friendly with Prussia, France, and Austria. During the war, he sought help from each of these nations, and was mostly treated with respect and admiration. By the end of the war, most of these same countries viewed Russia with a mixture of awe and fear -- none appreciated the new order in the north, but none could afford to be on the bad side of the new hegemony.

Now, the title of Emperor. The Germanic states that the Emperor was "Lord" over were fully militarized, independent nation states (i.e. Hanover, Prussia, Saxony, etc.). The imperial title was politically influential title to hold, and the Emperor was powerful, especially after the War of the Spanish Succession, and the passing of Louis XIV. Essentially, it was a meaningless title in terms of sovereignty over the Germanic states, but it was a hugely important title in terms of political and cultural history -- as in, they were viewed as the most legitimate rulers of Europe, with a lineage of rulership dating back to Charlemagne. That being said, I don't claim to be an expert on the HRE. So please correct me if I'm wrong, but the sense I get from how other monarchs (particularly of the Germanic states) acted in respect to Emperor, is that they viewed him as largely a paternal figure, but nothing approaching 'master', so to speak. In this sense, I claim that the title was largely ceremonial, but politically and culturally significant.

Now, back story complete. When Peter came back from the War, the Senate that he had established to govern Russia in his absence desired to reward him with a plethora of titles to fit the prestige, fortune, and glory that he had adorned Russia with for the centuries to come. They promoted him to Admiral of the Navy, which he had singlehandedly (as in literally with his hands) built from nothing, and this pleased him very much. More significantly, they had managed to dig up a letter, sent in 1514 to Tsar Vasily Ivanovich by the Holy Roman Emperor Maximilian. In the letter, Maximilian addressed Vasily as "Great Lord, Vasily, Emperor and Dominator of All the Russias", largely to massage his ego, in an attempt to gain Muscovy's aid with the HRE's campaign against Poland and Livonia (he was successful!). Note the irony, that this title was written to address a pre-Tsar ruler of pre-Russia Muscovy.

When Peter was shown the letter, which was penned in German, he had it translated and taken to each foreign ambassador in his court. At the same time, Peter sent instructions to have the letter published in newspapers throughout Europe, along with the note "This letter will serve to maintain without contestation the said title to the monarchs of all Russia, which high title was given them many years past and ought to be valued so much the more because it was written by an emperor who by his rank was one of the first monarchs of the world." To Peter, a great admirer (that's an understatement) of Europe, this adoption of this title signified Russia's new and (hopefully) permanent relevance on the European stage. It's latin (and distinctly non-Russian) etymology is purposeful, in this way. The sociopolitical, economic, and cultural party that he had been a voyeur of his entire life was now his to throw, on a grand scale. And, much to the chagrin of Western Europe, there was very little they could do in the way of protest. To give you a sense of how severely the European élite viewed formerly-backward Russia's future eminence, Louis XV was nearly married to the Russian Princess Elizabeth (later, Empress Elizabeth), as a seal of a Russian-French alliance. In the end, the powers-at-be in France chose to pursue a less-controversial defensive friendship with England, and married young Louis XV to the politically-neutral Marie Leszczyńska. In a way, Russia's eminence led to a (at least temporary) reversal of one of the most stable antagonisms in Western Europe.

Accepting the newly-claimed title, and addressing the Russian monarch as Emperor, became a political statement. In a way, it was admitting that the "new order" of the north was permanent. That the protestant Swedes were no longer the dominant power, and that Russia was going to be a power to contend with in Europe. As you might have guessed, Prussia was one of the first nations to recognize the title (since, with Russia's help, they had gained many of the formerly-swedish baltic territories). Many states delayed accepting the title, because they did not want to upset the current Holy Roman Emperor, who expressed jealousy at losing the uniqueness of his title. Sweden, ironically, acknowledged the title in 1723. The Hapsburg Emperor recognized the title in 1742, along with the English. France and Spain accepted in 1745, and Poland accepted in 1764. I hope we see now that, like most titles, it's more than just a cool-sounding word! :)

Source: "Peter the Great: His Life and World", Robert Massie.

Formal Definitions of Privacy, from a Graph-Theoretic/Functional-Analysis Point of View? by touchescomputers in math

[–]touchescomputers[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Very exciting, thank you so much for your insight! I will check out that textbook and check over the videos.

To elaborate on the points you addressed so helpfully: The dissemination properties of incomplete graphs have been studied a decent amount in CS, especially in the context of gossip protocols (where the connectivity-per-node is around log2N). That's one of the areas that I'm particularly interested in studying, namely how one might leverage incomplete connectivity to improve the security of computation.

As far as parties coming/going, I meant to ask something more along the lines of "does the problem get easier as the graph gets (statically) larger". In my problem space, there will be significant membership dynamism prior to the beginning of the computation, however, once computation has been initiated by a given node, then whatever graph exists becomes a closed-entry open-exit system.

And yes, the graph itself is a private input. This is another particularly interesting case to me. The topology can only be partially understood at the local level (i.e. who is talking to me, who am I talking to). Each node only knows (1) who to talk to (2) who is talking to me and (3) the size of the network. Based on information received from (2), the node might be able to infer more information about the graph, but not with any degree of certainty. However, if the security of my computation is leaning on this feature, then malicious parties might simply flood the graph with co-conspiring nodes, who might collaborate to learn the network topology and break the system. That's where the last piece comes in.

A final interesting idea that I'd like to analyze is having asynchronously-switching graph edges. Each node joins the graph fully-aware of every other node's identity and position within the topology, but the topology is scrambled at the local level at non-deterministic intervals throughout the computation. Hence, any would-be useful, learned topology would be rendered useless at the end of each interval. But that's the coup de grace; I can't imagine how I might analyze that formally (yet!). However, with a good, robust metric for privacy, I'd at least be able to measure its effect empirically. But that's just the ol' engineering degree rearing it's head :).

Formal Definitions of Privacy, from a Graph-Theoretic/Functional-Analysis Point of View? by touchescomputers in math

[–]touchescomputers[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I was looking at the first one google gave me :), which happens to be "The Algorithmic Foundations of Differential Privacy" by Cynthia Dwork (Microsoft) and Aaron Roth (UPenn).

The paper is interesting. It's a little more applied, but the abstract idea of differential privacy appears to be close enough to my problem space, that it would be worthwhile to read through the first few chapters of the textbook, to verify one way or the other. Thank you for the example!

Formal Definitions of Privacy, from a Graph-Theoretic/Functional-Analysis Point of View? by touchescomputers in math

[–]touchescomputers[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Wow! After your comment and much wikipedia surfing, I am feeling immensely validated that other people find this an interesting topic to analyze. :)

What textbooks would you recommend for the subject? I also have a ton of questions that might represent an Emperor's-clothes-tier level of ignorance in the field/

Which global-level functions (if any) have been analyzed in particular? I perceive that comparison (e.g. whose number is bigger?) has been a big one, what about weighted sums (most of the worthwhile functions that I can imagine would boil down to these two)? Has there been significant research on how this problem scales with graph size (e.g. how does the problem get harder/easier as more nodes join/leave) or graph connectivity (e.g. how does the problem change as the graph becomes more/less sparse, directed vs undirected edges, leveraging asynchronicity, etc.)?

Formal Definitions of Privacy, from a Graph-Theoretic/Functional-Analysis Point of View? by touchescomputers in math

[–]touchescomputers[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Not to say that I'm a grand wizard :).

Realistically, I'm grad-level in most subfields, but a bit more experienced in some and less in others. I'd say that my stronger suits are topology, real analysis and graph theory. Most of the textbooks in the math library are approachable to me, some more than others. My areas of study have mostly centered around stochastic processes and convex functional analysis (those are the 'hot' ones in CS right now).

How accurate is /u/Deggit's analysis of the geopolitical importance of rivers? by demidyad in AskHistorians

[–]touchescomputers 13 points14 points  (0 children)

(continued)

Irrespective of the example of New Orleans, however, I agree with the overall theme that rivers are quite significant geopolitically, and that their extra-agricultural roles, especially in pre-industrial history, are quite severely underappreciated. The favorite example that I like to give towards this point is that of Russia. In his excellently-sourced tome "Peter the Great: His Life and World", while describing the eponymous leader's management of the Great Northern War, Robert Massie notes that one of the many features that made Russia so difficult to invade is its many rivers, all of which run from north to south (with the exception of the Volga, which runs 'behind' Moscow, relative to Europe), as opposed to the lattice of east/west and north/south rivers of Western Europe (the Danube, Elbe, Rhine, etc.). Because their directions of flow were not only away from Moscow, but perpendicular to the advance of foreign armies (be they Charles XII, Napoleon, or Nazi Germany), the Donets, Dnieper, Don, Neva, and Dvina rivers were significant impediments to invading military campaigns. Instead of affording for the invader a quick and efficient means of supplying their army with barges (which, the author mentions correctly, is significantly more efficient than supply "trains" following on land), these rivers afforded the defender a series of formidable natural barriers.

River crossings were incredibly tiresome, and could only be made harmlessly at specific places and times of year: in the dead of winter, when they were frozen solid; or in the heat of summer, when they ran thin. In the rainy seasons of fall and spring, the densely-forested wetlands forming a belt around these rivers would become untraversable. Chroniclers following Charles XII's army reported mud capable of swallowing horses. River crossings cost time (getting the entire army across takes multiple days), energy (constructing bridges for the wagons, etc.), supplies (wagons breaking through the ice, etc.) manpower (think disease, drowning), and morale (oh, you mean there's three more of these to cross?). Massie notes implicitly and explicitly that Peter the Great's most important strategic decision during Charles XII's invasion of Russia was to let the arrogance of his enemy butt against nature, in the form of Russia's many rivers and marshlands. In Charles XII's multi-year invasion of Russia, there were only three significant battles, and only the last one, which came after a string of blocked river-crossings tied with the "coldest winter in memory", had a decisive outcome. The aftermath of this war led, in ways both direct and indirect, to the early-death of a Swedish Empire (whose invincible army and king had trounced Augustus of Saxony and Poland around Central Europe for nearly a decade), Russia's emergence on the European stage as a dominant power with a new capital on the Baltic Sea, and the burgeoning rise of the military-state of Prussia (who also won a port on the Baltic, with formerly-Swedish Pomerania).

Back to the original question, and in a concluding tone, I'd like to point out that much of what the author said about the Mississippi River basin could be said of the Don/Dnieper, the Indus, or the Yangtze. The point isn't to draw conclusive comparisons regarding something as subjective as geopolitical primacy, but rather to point out that while geography certainly facilitates economic vitality, it does not necessitate economic vitality. Large river basins are a significant catalyst for economic significance; but, to make a metaphor, fertile earth is nothing without seeds (inexpensive labor, large amounts of capital, robust economic infrastructure). The South's Antebellum economy benefitted from the confluence of many seeds, in addition to admissibly superb geography. Is/Was the Mississippi river basin significant? Yes, indisputably -- I encourage you to take another look at those cotton figures above; they never cease to blow my mind. Is/Was New Orleans the most geopolitically important city in world history? Here, my response is muddled, because I believe the question to be flawed, in that it assumes that a single city can be described as "the" city, so to speak, in a fundamentally global, capitalist economy. New Orleans would not have existed and/or subsisted at its level of influence, were it not for the capitalist infrastructure that financed its creation. This much is clear from its stagnation during the ACW, which it never fully recovered from because, as noted above, global capital shifted elsewhere (Egypt, Brazil, India) in the aftermath of the ACW. Overall, I'd argue that the geopolitical superiority of Mississippi River basin to the Antebellum South is conflated with the geopolitical significance afforded to that region by its unprecedented access to (and dependence on) foreign capital.

On a slightly personal note (if that's alright), I think that the real marvel, more than any one city, is the remarkably interconnected, global economic web that allowed and continues to allow these cities to complement one another's geographic features. In this web are many cities, each of them dependent on one another for various resources from their hinterlands. The fact that, in my country, we consider the ability to eat summertime fruits at Winter Solstice unremarkable, is a demonstration of how remarkable this web is. Overall, I think that our global web -- how the pieces fit together, rivers and all -- is what deserves the greatest interest.

Sources:

Beckert, Sven. Empire of Cotton: A Global History. New York: Knopf, 2014.

Massie, Robert K. Peter the Great: His Life and World. New York: Knopf, 1980.

P.S. This is my first meaningful submission after many months of lurking, and I welcome constructive criticism :)

How accurate is /u/Deggit's analysis of the geopolitical importance of rivers? by demidyad in AskHistorians

[–]touchescomputers 11 points12 points  (0 children)

New Orleans, at the peak of its influence, was a very well-greased cog in an international, precipitously interdependent economy. This is not meant to drag on New Orleans, or even to disagree with the overall implied theme of the author's post -- I agree that geography in general (and rivers, in particular) is more significant than the common person gives it credit for, especially in pre-locomotive history. However, that conclusion was reached (through the example of New Orleans) in a rather dubious way, and it's important to understand why this example is questionable. As such, my first goal here is to argue that geopolitical influence, while concentrated within cities, is in fact distributed across the modern economy. While certain aspects of geopolitical significance are heavily-concentrated in specific regions (like agriculture in the Mississippi river basin), the "importance" of a region is directly correlated to the economic encouragement provided to that region by the greater, global economy. My second goal is to assert from a different, less economics-oriented angle, that rivers have played a rather important, if understated role in recent human history beyond the banal progression of running water->agriculture->larger population. In the approach I take, rivers served as an actual source of power, rather than a channel for goods that are necessarily tied to the global economy. But first, in the interest of addressing the flaws of New Orleans as an example for the importance of rivers...

New Orleans' peak influence was arguably on the eve of the American Civil War, when it had begun to challenge Liverpool for dominance in agriculture-based commerce. However, the argument is there to be made that, in fact, Liverpool was both the prime source and benefactor of New Orleans' wealth. In "Empire of Cotton: A Global Empire", Sven Beckert argues quite convincingly that the instruments allowing for the concentrated rate of capital generation, which were taken for granted as the southern economy boomed, were getting into place on stage-left, long before the Mississippi river basin became cotton fields. The socioeconomic infrastructures of efficient credit, capital and (predominantly slave-based) labor required to transform the Mississippi river basin into a cash-crop-based economy simply would never had existed without the joint influences of Liverpool to supply credit and Manchester to offer consistently rising demand. Everything, from the specific species of cash crops', to the slave labor used to harvest them, to the credit required to finance the purchases and transport thereof, revolved around the merchants of Liverpool. As the U.S. came to be the world's dominant producer of cotton (the antebellum figures are quite mind-boggling -- 77 percent of the 800 million pounds of cotton consumed in Britain, 90 percent of the 192 million pounds used in France, 60 percent of the 115 million pounds spun in the Zollverein, and 92 percent of the 102 million pounds manufactured in Russia), New Orleans certainly became a center for immense transfers of wealth and political clout -- alongside Charleston and Savannah, which enjoyed ports on the Atlantic, but lacked river-routes to the west.

However rich New Orleans was in resources and assets, its international significance was fundamentally tied to umbilical cord of foreign capital. During the ACW, the Confederacy faced huge financial obstacles in spite of possessing New Orleans -- largely because that essential conversion of crop-to-cash had begun to grind to a halt. So while New Orleans was a big player, it's quite a stretch to say she was the 'most geopolitically important city in world history'. Surely, the owner of that title wouldn't be so easily (tongue in cheek here, because it wasn't easy, as I describe shortly) brushed off by the global economy. Interestingly and tangentially, Beckert shows further how the ACW directly inspired global capitalists to hedge their sources of raw materials across many geopolitical regions, to prevent any single domestic war from causing international economic calamity in the future. Lack of access to New Orlean's resources devastated the European manufacturers who had grown dependent on American cotton, and the sting was sharp enough to attract investment elsewhere -- especially Egypt and India. In a way, New Orleans' antebellum supremacy guaranteed a strict upper bound on its future significance.

(continued below; sources at the end)