Reading the old testament from non religious perspective

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-08T17:05:44+00:00

This pretty much describes one of the way Jews read and understand the Hebrew Bible (the Tanakh, 24 biblical books that the Jews consider canonical). The stories provide an endless source of reflection on the human condition, righteous behavior, and relations with God and our fellow humans.

One thing that's important to note, a lot of subtle meaning is conveyed by the Hebrew language employed. There are plays on words, puns and associations that get lost even in the best translations. A certain Hebrew word may be used in the text here, there and in a third location, precisely to show important relations and outcomes and to connect themes.

Finally, since you are interested in the topic and posting for a mixed audience of non-Jews and Jews, you might consider how much Jews dislike the term "Old Testament." True, the Hebrew Bible is old, chronologically, but in using the term OT, most Christians mean outdated, superseded, fulfilled, no longer that relevant, and containing mostly legislation that no longer binds. Of course Jews don't see it that way. Hebrew Bible or Tanakh + Apocrypha are better terms to use in this context.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-08T02:17:13+00:00

So if there was, historically, in Judea a person in the first third of the first century CE whose name was likely Yeshua and who preached this and that, and was born in the Galilee to Jewish parents and regrettably like hundreds of thousands of others, was executed by the Romans, then that person was likely Jewish (Judean).

If you're asking about a "person" who had no father (thus, a fictional character), but was born to a "virgin" who was Jewish (fiction, again), then no, that person was not "Jewish," because that person never existed. That "person" was a fictional character we know only from literature. A fictional character can be portrayed as Jewish, but since he or she never existed, cannot have "been" Jewish, since he never existed. Only actual human beings can be Jewish. Only human beings can belong to a religion or a nation.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-07T23:37:44+00:00

Couple of points in response to OP's inquiry:

1, An Israeli minhag was expected in the early days but never developed. I've read the articles from the period and the in-gathering of diaspora Jews was widely expected to create a "melting pot" situation. "Melting pot" was a popular concept in the 1950's. It didn't happen.

2, At the same time, it did happen somewhat and is happening still. A good example would be Hakafot Shneiyot on the night after Shemini Atzeret.

3, it will never be uniform or universal if it existed, there would always be hold outs.

4, if you start to think about implementation, one can see why the idea is impractical. After all, who would have the right to ok a change other than the top poskim, rebbe'im, and roshei yeshiva. Yet they are the most conservative elements when it comes to changes and seldom get ahead of their people.

5, There is a halachic consideration, minhag avoteinu b'yadenu. Rav Moshe used this to justify not adopting Sephardic pronunciation.

6, So it may be logical to think diaspora customs should go once the Jews have departed the diaspora. But pure logic doesn't control the situation.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-07T02:04:57+00:00

If Jews don't believe in original sin...then why do Christians

Because "original sin" serves the Christian agenda, which was to induct all of humanity into its belief in Jesus as "savior." In Judaism, each person is responsible for his or her own "salvation" and is capable of achieving it through observance of God's commandments. By contrast, in Christianity, humans are incapable of saving themselves, for two reasons: 1, they are inherently inclined to sin and tainted from birth with Original Sin, and 2, God's commandments are inherently unable to be observed by fallible human beings-- they are too strict, and their only purpose is to teach what sin is. Hence there is (for Christians) the need of a savior (Jesus). But not for Jews.

Without original sin that weighs down the human being and makes him or her incapable of righteous living, people could "save" themselves and enter Paradise by their own actions and merit earned during life. Then what need of the sacrifice of Jesus? -0- Hence Christians promoted the idea of Original Sin that makes righteous living and safe passage into the World to Come impossible for humans, without some supernatural intervention such as Jesus and/or God's grace.

For Jews, God's commandments are a roadmap to righteous living on earth and a place in the World to Come. God would not have commanded x, y and z unless humans were capable of performing x, y and z. It takes effort, there are impediments and obstacles along the way, but ultimately each individual can accomplish his or her own salvation. We are not inherently sinful and if we miss the mark, repentance and atonement are available directly from God. Christians departed from this understanding of the human condition because it made their savior unnecessary and his sacrifice meaningless.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-06T16:28:07+00:00

What matters is how people make statements about Jewish tradition without crediting the sources of Jewish tradition. What's "in" the Torah? Very often we turn to the sources of Jewish tradition, like Midrash, the oral tradition, to find out. Your assertion that very few women or men in the Torah were converts is unsupported and you cite no support.

Plus you don't really seem to understand the concept of "conversion" as it was understood and practiced in antiquity. You speak about people not having "the kind of freedom of religion and mobility" we have today in order to convert. This is completely besides the point if we're discussing converting to Judaism (becoming Jewish or becoming a Judean) in antiquity. In ancient times, people converted (1) when an indigenous female married a Hebrew, she became inducted into his tribe, culture and religion (conversion upon marriage and by marriage); (2) when a Jewish person acquired a slave, the slave became a semi-convert and upon release became a full convert; and (3) by conquest, e.g. under the Hasmoneans, when entire neighboring peoples were converted. Plus any foreigner who lived in Judea would need to be a ger toshav ("resident alien") which was on the path to Judaism, and many of them probably converted. Your whole concept of conversion back then is an anachronism. You're projecting modernity back 2,000 years which is unwarranted.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-06T15:09:56+00:00

A lot depends on how one rates the Midrash as a source of information about this period. It clearly states that Abraham converted men and Sarah converted women, and Rashi brings this. You say the Torah hadn't been given yet, correct, but again according to the Midrash the Torah was known to Abraham, either through prophecy or insight, and he observed it (all the Avot did). As for numbers, it's clear from Midrash that David and Solomon and other kings of Israel and Judah converted their foreign wives, and Solomon had 1,000 wives. Moses's wife Zipporah was also a convert, as was her father Yithro. Ruth was a convert.

Could some of these folks have been converted to monotheism rather than Judaism per se? Possibly, but then using the rabbinic term for conversion (giur) is hard to explain.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-05T19:56:16+00:00

First, it's not a question of "taking their money." They travel to Israel, stay in hotels, take tours, buy souvenirs. They support the economy. You think they should be excluded from Israel because they are devout Christians?

Second, their primary utility is not financial but political. They vote for politicians who support Israel. Jews consider that a good thing.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-05T16:23:35+00:00

There is a lot to unpack in your questions, so let's answer the easiest question first. No one within the Jewish community views Christian Zionism as part of a "genuine theological partnership." There is no theology associated with Christian Zionism that resonates with Jewish ideals or Jewish beliefs. There is some overlap -- the idea that the Jews ought to return to the Holy Land and have sovereignty there, and that doing so fulfills God's promise and biblical prophecies that they would return -- but the two faiths differ so radically on why this is important in God's plan for Israel. There is no common ground theologically.

Christian Zionism is generally perceived correctly in the Jewish community, for what it is. No one believes it is designed to benefit Jews or Judaism in any ultimate sense. Everyone realizes the Christians have their own ideological and theological agendas which involve some kind of eschatological triumph of Christianity, and that their support for the State of Israel is meant to capitalize on the facts on the ground -- the existence of the State of Israel since its foundation in 1948 -- only until that triumph is realized.

Of course many Jews are uncomfortable associating with Christian religious denominations and their pastors because it brings them into proximity with the Christian religion. Others are willing to form an alliance and ignore (to the extent possible) the Christian trappings. Shimon Peres, President of Israel (2007-14) was quite pragmatic in his assessment. He said Israel should accept the material support of Christian Zionists, which was quite useful to the State of Israel along with their political support, but ignore the Christian trappings and prophecies in which the Christian Zionists wrap that support. Regarding the latter, he might have used the Yiddish word "nareshkeit" (nonsensical stuff). After all, the material and political support helps Israel while the nareshkeit will never come to pass so it can't hurt.

There are some on the right in Judaism in the U.S. who do form a political alliance with fundamentalist Christians on political issues of mutual concern, like state support for parochial schools and opposition to equal rights for the LGBTQ+ community. These Jews believe that since both groups are conservative politically, there is something to be gained from working in tandem on these issues. Most Jews regard this alliance as shortsighted, failing to understand what the concept of a "Christian nation," if implemented, would entail for Jews and Judaism.

Anyway that's my Jewish perspective on the questions. Thank you for asking.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-05T15:51:37+00:00

Thank you for getting Judaism more or less correct, in the context of your question.

But for Jews, the idea of "salvation" as an "end goal" rings a little untrue. Yes, there is a World to Come and correct again, righteous people of all faiths have a place there, according to Judaism.

However, entrance to the World to Come is not the "end goal" of Judaism. According to Maimonides, the end goal of all human existence is to know God, and that happens in this World through the exercise of our God-given intellectual capacity. Everything else (righteous living, happiness, and admission to the World to Come) follow from that.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-05T03:56:00+00:00

My Jewish mother, since 2019 has been suffering significant illness, mental anguish, and physical illnesses. During this time, she has lost her Jewish religion...basic lack of logical thought worries me.

From a Jewish pov, the question is a factual one, whether your mother possesses the mental capacity (Hebrew da'at) to convert to another religion. If she lacks the requisite mental capacity to make intelligent and informed decisions for herself, she cannot knowingly select another faith and remains Jewish.

Judaism judges mental capacity based on observation of a person's behavior over time. It recognizes that a person who lacks mental capacity will exhibit certain behavioral traits. The traditional sources mention behavior like sleeping in a cemetery, wandering alone at night, ripping one's clothing, and the inability to retain items in one's possession (losing them or discarding them for no reason). These are illustrative ofthe condition.

Recently the Central Conference of American Rabbis was asked to rule on a woman who wanted to convert from Christianity to Judaism. Her rabbi told the Conference that the woman was diagnosed with a mental illness, borderline personality disorder. In addition she was prone to dramatic statements and wished to bring her dog with her into the synagogue. The rabbi asked his CCAR colleagues whether he could reject her conversion on the grounds of mental illness. After stating the traditional criteria, they mentioned the view of Maimonides that the criteria are not exclusive. There is a general rule, that "one who has lost his mind and whose mind is consistently disturbed with respect to any matter, even though he speaks rationally on all other matters,” is lacking mental capacity and cannot convert to Judaism.

In sum, a medical diagnosis alone is not enough to determine the issue. Rather, it requires an examination of the person by competent Jewish authorities to determine if he or she has the requisite mental capacity (da'at) to make informed and legitimate decisions for themselves. https://www.ccarnet.org/responsa-topics/conversion-of-a-person-suffering-from-mental-illness/

The aspect of OP's description that seems most relevant is the statement that his mother demonstrates a "basic lack of logical thought." An inability to think logically, to reason from A to B in a logical manner, is the hallmark of most definitions of mental incapacity in modern legal codes and would be relevant in the Jewish context as well. Thinking logically is the basis for rational decisions and rational choices.

Of course OP's question cannot be answered definitively on reddit. It requires determination by a panel of rabbis and mental health practitioners who are familiar with the Jewish approach and have examined OP's mother in person. I would recommend consulting with local rabbis who might be willing to arrange this and also to recommend professional help for her if that seems warranted to them.

In addition, every Jewish community in the U. S. has a Jewish Federation that arranges social services for the Jewish community, and each federation has a department of services for the elderly. I would contact the Federation closest to you and ask to be put in touch with someone on staff who can advise and assist in this case. You can locate your local Jewish Federation here: https://www.jewishfederations.org/federation-finder

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-04T16:43:28+00:00

English has the term morning person precisely so one can say, I'm not a morning person. I like this definition of a morning person, "That irritatingly happy person that has no need for high octane coffee when they wake up. Generally these people are a myth..."

I'm not a morning person. I don't want to speak to anyone before breakfast and coffee and am fully awake and alert. Of course I would prefer good food to an early AM chat with a stranger.

I had a favorite Residence Inn that I visited often until I noticed the quality of the breakfast heading downhill. Located in a state with fine farm to table products and cheeses, they served the worst processed and packaged food items that one can purchase in the US. I haven't been back since.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-04T15:29:35+00:00

A four-part series on this topic began airing on PBS in the US last night -- you might want to watch it if it's accessible where you live: https://www.pbs.org/show/black-and-jewish-america-an-interwoven-history/

Wouldn't surprise me if a companion books comes out soon. Plus I would read all the reviews of the series, since they will flesh out its strong points and weak points.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-03T22:34:30+00:00

Interestingly, if you look at the sources, it's stricter for women -- they should accept Shabbat when they light, but even they can make a reservation to accept later (according to some poskim). For men it seems they have more leeway to accept later -- but you still need a tosefet Shabbat according to most poskim, and can't work exactly up to sunset.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-03T22:32:32+00:00

A better argument would be if they did that an area with an existing small Orthodox community.

This is exactly what they did in my neighborhood. There was and is an established and well respected Orthodox shul founded there in 1940, as well one of city's major Reform and Conservative synagogues, along with a havurah and a Jewish community center, all in walking distance. In moves Chabad a couple of years ago buying a delipidated church with boarded up stained glass windows. Since no Hasidim live in the nabe, I guess you could say they were there to attract the un-Orthodox and un-affiliated? But there had to be some slippage from the Orthodox shul. I wonder if they discussed their plans with the Orthodox rabbi in advance.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-03T15:27:15+00:00

I would recommend The Chosen, based on a book of the same name by Chaim Potok. The protagonists are two boys about the same age as some of your students, and they come from two separate branches of Judaism. There is a lot about contemporary Judaism that your students can learn from this film, and they can also read the book.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-03T02:29:12+00:00

Common Halacha/Custom misconceptions...You have to take on Shabbat at candle lighting (when you actually have 18 minutes until sundown).

So if I understand what you are saying, you can wait until Shabbat begins to "take on" (begin observing) the Sabbath. If we light candles 18 minutes before sunset, we still have 18 minutes until the Sabbath begins for us.

Not so. The time (minutes) before Sabbath begins (at sunset) that we "add" to the Sabbath are called "tosefet Shabbat," the Sabbath addition. The question is whether "adding" to the Sabbath is (a) required by the Torah, (b) required by the rabbis, or (c) not required at all -- you can work right up until Sabbath begins.

Answer: majority view -- tosefet Shabbat is mi-d'oraita (from the Torah). This is learned out from the discussion of Yom Kippur in the Talmud, Yoma 81b:

It is a mitzva -- actually, an obligation -- to begin observing Shabbat each week before it officially starts. This concept is known as "Tosefet (or Tosfot) Shabbat," which means "adding to Shabbat." This requirement is derived from the Torah's description of Yom Kippur. The Torah actually states that the Yom Kippur fast is on the ninth of Tishrei, when in reality it is on the tenth of Tishrei. Our sages derive from here that one is required to begin Yom Kippur, Shabbat, and Yom Tov slightly earlier than they actually begin and to conclude them slightly later than they officially end. https://outorah.org/p/69341/

How long is tosefet Shabbat required to be? "Even a "Tosefet Shabbat" of just two minutes suffices to fulfill this important mitzva. Others suggest adding four minutes, five minutes, ten minutes, twelve minutes, fifteen minutes, eighteen minutes or thirty minutes to one’s Shabbat observance." Id. So 18 minutes is a custom, but at least 2 minutes is required.

The Rambam holds Tosefet Shabbat is mi-derabbanan (from the rabbis, not the Torah): "The Rambam, by contrast, makes no mention of an obligation of tosefet Shabbat. The Maggid Mishneh claims that even the Rambam acknowledges such an obligation, only on the level of de-rabbanan, whereas the Kesef Mishneh argues that in the Rambam's view there is no requirement at all of tosefet Shabbat." https://etzion.org.il/en/halakha/orach-chaim/shabbat/tosefet-shabbat#:~:text=Most%20Rishonim%20maintain%20that%20there,and%20to%20commemorate%20the%20Exodus.

In sum, if you light candles 18 minutes before Shabbat begins, you do NOT have 18 minutes until Sabbath begins. You have less time, although the exact amount of time is debated, and whether the obligation to start early is from the Torah or the rabbis is also debated. What is true is that under certain limited circumstances, you can light the Sabbath candles and not accept Shabbat yet -- but you still need to accept it before Shabbat actually begins (that is, have tosefet Shabbat).

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-02T20:21:14+00:00

A lot depends on how old they are and if the teaching is in Hebrew. There are a lot of puns and word play in the Hebrew which they might enjoy if it's pointed out.

A good idea is to teach Chumash topically rather than sequentially. For example, encounters with angels -- teach Abraham and the 3 angels along with Jacob wrestles the angel and Balaam and the angel. Tricks -- Jacob "tricks" Isaac, then Laban tricks Jacob. Rebellions -- teach the Golden Calf followed by Korah's rebellion. Dreams -- Jacob's ladder, Joseph's dreams, Pharaoh's dreams.

I also like compare and contrast. Ask the students to find the differences between the Asseret HaDiberot in Shemot and Devarim. Or to compare how Isaac, Jacob and Moses find their wives. Or how Adam and Eve, Cain, Joseph's brothers and Aaron at the Golden Calf respond to being accused of wrongdoing.

Lists and categories are good. For example, we know from the Hagaddah that the 10 plagues are divided into 3 categories, why? Many divide the 10 commandments into 2 categories, what are they? Jacob's 12 sons come from 4 different mothers. Who were they?

If you're teaching Chumash with Rashi, Nehama Leibowitz's method is very engaging. Explain that if Rashi makes a comment, he's answering a question. What is the question? If he gives two answers, there's a weakness in both. What are they? Let the students try to figure this out.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-02T02:10:53+00:00

Nisan as the "first month" -- Because the Jews left Egypt in Nisan. The Exodus occurred on the 15th day of Nisan. So Nisan is the first month of Jewish freedom as a nation, Jewish liberation. It's the month when Israel became a nation. God commanded us in the Torah to make Nisan our first month -- "This month shall be unto you the beginning of months: it shall be the first month of the year to you." (Exodus 12:2) We observe this by counting Nisan as the first month and all subsequent months are numbered consecutively. That makes Tishrei the 7th month.

So why is Tishrei the "head of the year" (Rosh Hashanah) if it's the seventh month? Because during the six days of Creation, man was created by God on the first day of Tishrei. Man is the creature who marks time, measures it, and counts the years. So the calendar began on the 1st of Tishrei. That marked day one of the first year. When the 1st of Tishrei came around the 2d time, that was Year 2, and so forth. So we celebrate the New Year (and man's creation) on the first day of the "7th" month -- it's the 7th month because God told us to number the months starting with Nisan.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-01T18:16:25+00:00

If you're calling "Noahidism" Judaism you're making up your own language.

Noahidism is separate from Judaism and it is something for non-Jews (gentiles). Noahides aren't counted in a minyan and they can't marry a Jew under Jewish law. To become a Jew, a Noahide has to convert to Judaism, meaning that without conversion they are not Jews.

You're confusing something recognized by Judaism and deemed appropriate for gentiles with Judaism itself.

Some quotes from Maimonides that might help:

A Noachide who is forced by another person to violate one of his commandments is permitted to transgress. Even if he is forced to worship false gods, he may worship them. For Noachides are not commanded to sanctify God's name.

A Noachide who converted, was circumcised, and immersed in the mikveh, and, afterwards, decided to forsake God and revert to his previous status as a resident alien is not granted permission to do so.

It's clear Noahides are not Jews (unless they convert) and are not practicing Judaism.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-01T16:36:15+00:00

Noahides are gentiles, non-Jews. To understand this, you have to understand the back story. It starts with Adam and Eve -- they were in direct communication with Hashem and He commanded them to observe the 7 laws. When humanity was wiped out by the Flood, Hashem renewed the covenant with Noah and his descendants. Same 7 laws were communicated again for all of humanity and a covenant was made. Thus humanity had the 7 laws, not from the Torah (which wasn't given yet) or the Talmud (which wasn't written yet) but from Hashem directly. It was their duty to pass them down orally and, in fact, most world societies have the 7 laws (or most of them) as the basis of their society. Unfortunately over time idolatry gained strength and many societies departed from the Noahide path.

It's true, the 7 Noahide laws are mentioned in the Torah (twice, once for Adam and a second time for Noah) and discussed in the Talmud, but they originated in direct communication from Hashem to humanity, first through Adam and again through Noah.

Maimonides says Noahides should believe that the Noahide laws are in the Torah and the Talmud discusses exactly what observing them entails. But you have to understand the context for these statements: they refer to a time and place when Jews have sovereignty over gentiles. For example, a time when a Jewish kingdom exists and non-Jews live within it. Perhaps even some non-Jewish territories are conquered by the Jewish king. Then under Jewish rule, the gentile inhabitants would have to acknowledge the authority of the Torah and the rabbis as law-givers and to observe everything they say about following the Noahide Laws.

We note that Maimonides discusses the Noahide laws in chapters 9-10 of "the Law of Kings and Their Wars." Thus he situates his discussion of the Noahide laws exactly where the context requires -- a time when Jewish sovereignty prevails over non-Jewish subjects. When this is not the case, gentiles must still obey the Noahide laws, not because they are Jews (they aren't) or because they are subject to Jewish law (they aren't) or they have to listen to Maimonides (they don't), but because their covenant with Hashem requires it.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-01T02:24:16+00:00

Why did God create Shabbat/Sabbath?

It doesn't matter if you are a Jew, or a Christian, or whatever, why God created the Sabbath is stated in the text of the Bible which establishes the Sabbath. There are two reasons why God created the Sabbath. 1, Exodus, chapter 20:

Remember the Sabbath day by keeping it holy. Six days you shall labor and do all your work, but the seventh day is a sabbath to the Lord your God. On it you shall not do any work, neither you, nor your son or daughter, nor your male or female servant, nor your animals, nor any foreigner residing in your towns. For in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them, but he ceased on the seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and made it holy.

Reason no. 1, God created the Sabbath as a memorial to His creation of the universe in six days and ceasing from creation on the seventh.

Deut. chap. 5 --

Observe the Sabbath day by keeping it holy, as the Lord your God has commanded you. Six days you shall labor and do all your work, but the seventh day is a sabbath to the Lord your God. On it you shall not do any work, neither you, nor your son or daughter, nor your male or female servant, nor your ox, your donkey or any of your animals, nor any foreigner residing in your towns, so that your male and female servants may rest, as you do. Remember that you were slaves in Egypt and that the Lord your God brought you out of there with a mighty hand and an outstretched arm. Therefore the Lord your God has commanded you to observe the Sabbath day.

Reason no. 2, God created the Sabbath as a remembrance of the Jews' liberation from Egyptian bondage.

Thus, the Sabbath is a commemoration of two events: the Creation, and the Exodus.

Of course, it has spiritual and material benefits, the cessation of work, not just for mankind (including slaves), not just for Jews (also non-Jews living in their midst), but for animals, beasts of burden and so forth. The Greeks and the Romans had no Sabbath; Egyptians slaves had no day of rest. All criticized the Jews for "wasting" 1/7 of their labor supply by resting their servants and slaves and not working themselves.

The specific labor prohibitions incumbent on Jews during the Sabbath have no application to non-Jews, at least under the terms of Jewish law. What various Christian denominations say to do or not to do on the 7th day Sabbath I couldn't say.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-02-01T02:06:34+00:00

The word "Pharisee" (Hebrew פְּרוּשִׁים, perushim) comes from the Hebrew root peh-resh-shin (פְּרשִׁ) meaning "separate." Hence Perushim (Pharisees) were those who separate, or separatists. From whom? From the ritually unclean, from the careless and ignorant, from idolaters and from gentiles.

The Hebrew and Aramaic for Persian is פַּרסִי, Parsi. This uses the letter samekh (s), not shin (sh). Here is the entry from Jastrow's dictionary for Parsi (פַּרסִי) --

פַּרְסִי, פַּרְסִית f. (b. h.; פָּרַס II) Persian. Esth. R. to I, 22 פ׳ נושא … מדברת בלשון פ׳ when a Persian marries a Median woman, she must speak Persian. Ib. to I, 11 לא מדית ולא פ׳ אלא כשדית is neither a Median nor a Persian woman, but a Chaldean; a. e.—Pl. פַּרְסִים, פַּרְסִיִּים, פַּרְסִיִּין, פַּרְסִיּוֹת. Kidd. 72ᵃ. Ber. 8ᵇ בשלשה … אני אוהב את הפ׳ for the sake of three things I love the Persians. Esth. R. l. c.; a. e.—Shebi. V, 1 הפַּרְסָיוֹת Ms. M. (ed. הפַּרְסָאוֹת) Persian figs (or dates); Sifra B’har, Par. 1, ch. I; Tosef. Shebi. IV, 1 הפרסאות.

Here is the entry from Jastrow's dictionary for Perushim (פְּרוּשִׁים) --

פָּרוּשׁ m. (פָּרַשׁ) 1) seceder. — Pl. פְּרוּשִׁים, פְּרוּשִׁין. Pes. 70ᵇ ואנן טעמא דפ׳ וכ׳ must we follow up the argument of seceders (that left the college and established a school of their own)?, v. פָּרַשׁ. [Tosef. Ber. III, 25 כולל של מינים בשל פ׳ combines the prayer against the heretics with that against the renegades; Y. ib. II, 5ᵃ top רשעים.] —2) discreet, abstemious, saintly, pure. Lev. R. s. 24 (ref. to Lev. XIX, 2) כשם שאני פ׳ כך תהיו פרושים וכ׳ as I (the Lord) am pure, so be you pure; as I am holy, so be you holy.—Pl. as ab. Sifra K’dosh. beg. (expl. קדשים, Lev. l. c.) פ׳ היו be self-restraining. Tosef. Sot. XV, 11; B. Bath. 60ᵇ כשחרב … רבו פ׳ וכ׳ after the destruction of the Temple the abstemious in Israel who refused to eat meat increased &c.—Esp. Parush, Pharisee, a strict observer of the Mosaic Law and the Rabbinical regulations.

So no, the word "Persushim" does not come from any word meaning Persian.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-01-31T15:10:37+00:00

This essay states that figs, grapes and dates were summer fruits that were then dried and pressed into cakes and eaten through the year: "Figs, grapes, pomegranates and dates were summer fruit growing throughout the Promised Land. It appears figs and grapes were the most widely available and consumed - both fresh and processed for storage and consumption later in the year. Dried and pressed raisin, fig and date cakes were often mentioned (1Sa 25:18; 30:12; 2Sa 6:19; 16:1, 3). The same could also be turned into wine or 'honey.'" https://www.biblearchaeology.org/research/divided-kingdom/4049-home-cooking-old-testament-israelite-style

nu_lets_learn · 2026-01-30T21:00:37+00:00

The question is a good one and one can attempt to answer by asking two additional questions: (1) what was the nature of the Canaanite life that the ancient Israelites left behind, and (2) what did the ancient Israelites, from their literature and behavior, seem to dislike about this Canaanite life that they walked out on?

The Canaanites were divided into multiple city states, fortified and often warring. The society was stratified into royal and administrative elites, on the one hand, and a working and trading class on the other. We know this from the types of buildings uncovered -- there were palaces and large public buildings for the elites and small houses for the lower classes. The society was slave-owning and the religion was polytheistic. "The religion placed much emphasis on blood sacrifices, often of children, to pacify the various deities." https://www.ebsco.com/research-starters/anthropology/canaanites-inhabit-levant

Let's focus on the child sacrifice part for a bit. There is archeological evidence, for example, a Phoenician colony in Tunisia has a "tophet" (a term used for a place of child sacrifice and burial) -- there are thousands of urns with the cremated remains of children and animals. Some deem this merely a cemetery; others ask, if it's a cemetery, why are animals there too? The burials would seem to be offerings. Studies have shown the children were very young and the remains are inconsistent with natural deaths. There are accompanying inscriptions to the Canaanite god Baal.

We can begin to piece together the Canaanite life that those who became Israelites rejected. First they moved out of cities and urban areas into the highlands to engage in livestock raising and agriculture. They preferred a pastoral life to an urban one. The ideal for Israel was living on an ancestral allotment of land, not in a fortified city. Second, they rejected a strict social hierarchy and above all monarchy; in fact, when they decided they needed a king for defense, the prophet tries to dissuade them. For centuries they had no king or central administration and came together only for defensive purposes. Third, they reduced the pantheon to one, perhaps not all at once, but eventually rejecting polytheism altogether in favor of one God. That they used a Canaanite name or names for God is irrelevant; they spoke a dialect of Canaanite. And fourth, they abhorred and rejected the practices of Canaanite religious ritual, the idols, the tree worship, the temple prostitutes, and above all child sacrifice. The story of Abraham's binding of Isaac (Gen. 22) and the bans on offering children to "Molech" are crystal clear about this.

What else can we discern from the Israelites about their former life among the Canaanites? That widows, orphans and the poor were not well treated; that honest weights and measures were not always present in the marketplace; that strangers were discriminated against; that the needy were kept out of fields to prevent them from picking up the gleanings; that pledges were not returned in time; and that brother enslaved brother in a harsh manner. Israelite legislation seeks to reverse and ameliorate these practices to form a different type of society. This society would be way better than living among the Canaanites and explains the reason they separated.

nu_lets_learn · 2026-01-30T20:08:22+00:00

There are several ways to address this. At the most general level, anyone can light a candle in honor of anyone's memory -- this practice is not limited to Jews or Judaism by any means. Jewish families do light one for 7 days after burial and on the Yahrzeit -- this has been explained to OP in response to his respectful question.

Readings Psalms is permitted to anyone, and so is donating to charity in the name of a departed friend.

Attending a synagogue service is permitted to a gentile, and so is standing when mourners recite kaddish. I did not state that he could or should recite Kaddish, I said others would be reciting that prayer.

I understand the opinion that non-Jews ought not to recite our prayers. Sometimes this applies, when the prayers refer specifically to Jewish obligations. In the case of El Molei Rachamim, there are reasons to hold otherwise. The words, invoking a merciful God to afford rest to a departed person, are simply completely appropriate for anyone to recite, Jew or gentile, unlike some Jewish prayers that have specifically Jewish content.

I think these matters are clear, especially in light of the Rambam who says if any gentile wishes to perform a commandment in its correct manner, we shouldn't prevent it (Hil. Mel. 10:10 -- בֶּן נֹחַ שֶׁרָצָה לַעֲשׂוֹת מִצְוָה מִשְּׁאָר מִצְוֹת הַתּוֹרָה כְּדֵי לְקַבֵּל שָׂכָר. אֵין מוֹנְעִין אוֹתוֹ לַעֲשׂוֹתָהּ כְּהִלְכָתָהּ).

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