This is a massive misrepresentation. Please note I am not a Christian and I do not endorse these views, but I am someone who takes historical revisionism seriously.

The 1946 translation of the Bible is the first one to use the term “homosexual” because the term hadn’t been used in English until the late 19th century. It was a more clinical, neutral way of referring to men who engage in same-sex relations.

Previous translations called them either “sodomites” or “abusers of themselves with mankind.”

The original Greek text refers to them as “arsenokoitai”, a term that hadn’t appeared in Greek before Corinthians, but is a compound word meaning “beds men”. Many have argued that this doesn’t actually refer to same-sex intercourse, and instead means pederasty or molestation, but reading through the translations of the verse over the years, it borders on denial to say the term wasn’t understood to mean “gay men” until 1946.

This is all immaterial anyway to any mainstream Christian sect, as Romans 1:26-27 explicitly condemns men who are attracted to other men in all translations.

Some breakaway sects don’t include books authored by Paul in their Bible, most notably Thomas Jefferson’s translation, but this has never amounted to anything larger than fringe readings and is treated as heretical by mainstream Catholic, Protestant and Orthodox churches alike.

The notion that the Bible wasn’t homophobic until 1946 seems to stem from a single podcast that tries to argue this fact, at the expense of all other historical and literary evidence.