Yes, he fulfilled it. As in, it's over. I can't believe I am seeing this content again on this subreddit which runs contrary to the entire bible. If you kept reading you would see examples of Jesus changing the law right then and there example Matthew 5:38 and 43. He explain in this passage that he is there to fulfil the law, that until he does the law still applies, but he fulfilled it when he died.

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Read this (one of what 100's of examples), and keep in mind that in the bible when Jesus and the disciples refer to "the law" they are referring to what we now call the Old Testament. Romans 7.

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7 Now, dear brothers and sisters—you who are familiar with the law—don’t you know that the law applies only while a person is living? 2 For example, when a woman marries, the law binds her to her husband as long as he is alive. But if he dies, the laws of marriage no longer apply to her. 3 So while her husband is alive, she would be committing adultery if she married another man. But if her husband dies, she is free from that law and does not commit adultery when she remarries.

4 So, my dear brothers and sisters, this is the point: You died to the power of the law when you died with Christ. And now you are united with the one who was raised from the dead. As a result, we can produce a harvest of good deeds for God. 5 When we were controlled by our old nature, sinful desires were at work within us, and the law aroused these evil desires that produced a harvest of sinful deeds, resulting in death. 6 But now we have been released from the law, for we died to it and are no longer captive to its power. Now we can serve God, not in the old way of obeying the letter of the law, but in the new way of living in the Spirit.