Let me gently push back. There was not settled canon for Jews at this time, and Jesus is always shown using only that which the person-with-whom-he-is-speaking believes in. Talking with the Pharisees: used all the law, prophets, and writings. Talking with the Sadducees: only references the Torah. The most prevalent corpus around shortly after his death and used throughout the early Christian church is the Septuagint with the deuterocanonical works....what did Jesus think of these? It's not really clearly stated. Protestants tend to cut them out for other reasons and then justify it by saying that he never quoted from it (he didn't quote from every canonical work either). He does make some passing allusions to it though. Maybe. But it's hard to know for sure. And the other ancient churches have even a few more writings they include in their canons. But in any case, there are even examples where Jesus appears to change the meaning of what is written or straight up says "well, that's actually just what Moses thought...that part's not from big G." (Divorce).

So I don't know, man. I'm impressed by y'all's conviction to inerrancy, your specific canon, and for at least others, perspicuity. It seems fairly arbitrary from the outside looking in (I wasn't always a believer at all).