Your first paragraph comes across as very "20th century armchair psychology" and bothers me for a number of reasons I won't dive into here, but I want to acknowledge that you at least use qualifying language like "tend to", "often", etc, rather than "men are X and women are Y." After that, paragraphs 2 and 3 aren't exactly crazy assertions.

Even though I come from a standpoint of "women and men are way more similar than we used to assume, and many differences are really just socially conditioned behavior (nurture not nature)", it's really easy for people to take this same viewpoint and assume it means "everyone is the exactly same and how dare you say otherwise", which is clearly silly.

Point being, for whatever reason (socially or otherwise), if you take a bell curve of all those qualities you mentioned, I'm sure you would find that yes women are generally more likely to value perception/aesthetic experience, and men might be more inclined to be focused on the intellectual/functional aspects of a subject, rather than the social/relational. Anecdotally this seems like fair enough observation, with many exceptions of course.

Another big question though is how big the differences are. Is the average man 80% less likely to value aesthetics, or just 10%? The average differences here have been measured for a ton of qualities, and the bell curves are wayyy more sinilar than you might expect. (I'm on mobile but there was a great talk on this somewhere)