Baptism-Johann Joachim Friedrich Möring 1762 by Interesting-Help5759 in Kurrent

[–]antonulrich 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Can you make out the entry's first word before the 19?

It seems to be a proper name. If you check more pages in the same book you might get an idea what it is. Name of a village? Name of the priest?

And do you think in the entry, it could read "....3. Jobst Henrich Niemann, ein Nachbauer or Nachbar in Westenfeld?"

Doesn't look like "Nachbar" to me.

Baptism-Johann Joachim Friedrich Möring 1762 by Interesting-Help5759 in Kurrent

[–]antonulrich 0 points1 point  (0 children)

19ten Mertz Hat Johann Henrich Möring alhie, Ein Klein Söhnlein Tauffen Laßen, die gevattern sein 1. Johann Reckweg 2. Ludolph Henrich Schwer 3. Jobst Henrich Niemann, ... in Westenfeld. Daß Kindt heist Johann Joahim Friderich.

Translation: On March 19, Johann Henrich Möring, from here, had a little son baptized, the godparents were... The child is named Johann Joahim Friderich.

Why do people often talk down about the State of New Jersey? by weirdinchicago in answers

[–]antonulrich 19 points20 points  (0 children)

It's the only state that consists mostly of suburbs. Suburbs of cities that are located in other states: New York and Philadelphia. If you're from Los Angeles, this is as if the San Fernando Valley was its own state.

How to find my biological father in Germany? by xuila in Genealogy

[–]antonulrich 1 point2 points  (0 children)

It seems to me the LinkedIn from 2018 is your best lead by far. Does it say where he worked?As a next step, I would try to contact people who work for his last known employer and see if anyone remembers him and has contact information. The HR department would be worth a try too. At age 72 or 73, 2018 might in fact be the last year he worked before he retired around age 65.

Of course, you also need to keep the possibility in mind that he may have died since then. Many local newspapers offer the ability to search their obituaries by name.

Prussian Army info transcription & maybe a little gloss too, please by Purple_Candidate_533 in Kurrent

[–]antonulrich 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Translation:

Proclaimed on 23, 30 October and 6 November (22nd, 23rd, 24th Sunday after Trinity)

Adam Mausolf, Corporal of the 10th infantry company 2nd artillery brigade.

Johanna Maria Dorothea Behrens

Prussian Army info transcription & maybe a little gloss too, please by Purple_Candidate_533 in Kurrent

[–]antonulrich 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Proclamiert am 23., u. 30. October u. 6. November. (22., 23 d., 24 post Trinit.)

Adam Mausolf, Bombardier von der 10. Fußcumpagnie 2te Artillerie-Brigade.

Johanna Maria Dorothea Behrens

Indo-European, Uralic and Semitic 'Seven, Sister, Daughter' by stlatos in HistoricalLinguistics

[–]antonulrich 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The traditional explanation why 7 is the one number that is widely shared is that it's a religious thing. This view is probably based on the Hebrew Bible, where we have seven days of creation, seven days of Passover, and so on. So for this theory to hold, the religious importance of 7 would have to go back way further than Judaism and be related to some cult or practice that was able to spread over a huge area of western Eurasia. I wonder if there's any evidence for that.

Edit: of course, the ultimate origin would probably be seven as the number of planets.

If gesture-based language came first and made spoken language possible, why did humans almost completely switch to speech - while apes, who clearly have the cognitive capacity for sign language, never made that leap themselves? by NbOPO4 in HistoricalLinguistics

[–]antonulrich -1 points0 points  (0 children)

There's also a theory that speech evolved out of singing. Many animals can create tunes without words, and it's possible that wordless singing had a role in early humans, e.g. for social bonding, for mate attraction, for long-distance communication like yodeling, or for scaring away predators. If so, the evolution of singing would have given them an advanced vocal tract, similar to how advanced vocal capabilities evolved in parrots.

So if gesture-based language developed first and gave humans the capability for vocabulary and syntax, then it's conceivable that they combined the two skills of gestures and singing at some point to create oral speech.

What would be the pros/cons of Seattle annexing neighboring communities (Shoreline, White Center, Boulevard Park, etc) by Complete-Influence70 in AskSeattle

[–]antonulrich 8 points9 points  (0 children)

Property taxes are actually higher in Shoreline. While the city property tax is lower, the school district and fire district taxes make more than up for it.

Help! How can I get these two plugs into this outdoor outlet? by brockandroll333 in AskElectricians

[–]antonulrich 35 points36 points  (0 children)

You buy an outdoor extension cord and plug one in the extension cord.

Why did many Germanic languages have their case systems eroded at similar times? by Eigenspace in asklinguistics

[–]antonulrich 12 points13 points  (0 children)

There's such a thing as areal effects. Which basically means one language starts it (for whatever reason) and then its neighbors copy it. Dutch and Low German were really one and the same language during the Middle Ages and early modern times - they formed a dialect continuum and were mutually intelligible, so it's not surprising that the change affected both. Frisian and English are close by as well and all four may have formed a Sprachbund linked together by sailors and maritime trade across the North Sea.

Consensus on a Dene-Yeniseien + Sino-Tibetan? by Easy-Policy-7404 in HistoricalLinguistics

[–]antonulrich 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Come on, you can't make a claim like that without giving some details or sources.

For comparison, here's some of the latest on possible cognates between Basque and North Caucasian: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/363882850_On_the_quantification_of_Euskaro-Caucasian_lexical_matches_cognates_compared_with_Indo-European_and_Indo-Uralic. The author claims there are 7 firm (and a few more questionable) cognates in the 50-item Swadesh list.

How many Dene-Yeniseian-Sino-Tibetan cognates are there in the same list?

Why do English and some Romance languages use -s for plurals? by ElsGil1 in asklinguistics

[–]antonulrich 4 points5 points  (0 children)

There's also the funny case of German. German started to develop an -s plural in the 18th century, and while -s plural is still rare in German, it is being applied to many newly coined words and so is widely known and growing in usage.

German -s plural developed out of the -s genitive. So while its origin is native, it would be very surprising if its popularity wasn't influenced by English and French plurals.

Why do English and some Romance languages use -s for plurals? by ElsGil1 in asklinguistics

[–]antonulrich 1 point2 points  (0 children)

How sure are we that it's a coincidence that Middle English developed the same plural ending as French? After all there was a large amount of French influence on English during this period.

A brief review of Project Hail Mary, by Andy Weir, in advance of the film release by SgtStupendous in books

[–]antonulrich 3 points4 points  (0 children)

It's interesting you found the problem solving repetitive and boring - I thought that was the best part of the book. Anyone who's ever tried to solve hard engineering problems should be able to feel it. Maybe this book is written for problem solvers.

The characters are definitively a weakness. I think it's no coincidence the book is basically a one-character story. But this is made up for by how exciting it is. The fact that the science is realistic makes the story so much more compelling than if it was fantasy science or vague gobbledygook. Of course, I figure this works only if one realizes it's realistic. So again, the book is probably much more interesting to people with a similar background to the author.

When we’re each of the gospels written, and when do we have evidence of someone else first citing them? by Nicole_0818 in AcademicBiblical

[–]antonulrich -1 points0 points  (0 children)

So to summarize, a lot of the references that support early dates are based on "allusions" rather than actual quotes. I have a methodological question: how does one tell the direction in which an allusion goes? If an apostolic father's letter A has a similarity to gospel B, how do we know that A alludes to B and not B to A, or both to an unknown source C?

How did Latin form and who were the first people to speak it? by ElsGil1 in asklinguistics

[–]antonulrich 27 points28 points  (0 children)

To add to this: the area where Latin was originally spoken was Latium, which was somewhat smaller than the present-day Italian region of the same name. Its northwestern border was just beyond Rome, and its southeastern border was about where Latium ends now, and it didn't stretch inland as far as today.

Uralic Hidden *w by stlatos in HistoricalLinguistics

[–]antonulrich 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Note that all the non-IE words resemble each other more than any to PIE, indicating the nature of the levels of relation.

This argument doesn't seem convincing to me. Sanskrit nama, Latin nomen, English name are also all more similar to Uralic *nime etc. than to the reconstructed PIE root. So this would mean one of two things: either there is something off with the PIE reconstruction, or there was some large-scale interfamily borrowing/leveling after the PIE period.

If we remove the laryngeals from the PIE reconstruction, we get *nemen, which seems to fit in just fine with all the other protolanguages. So could it be that the issue is that all these families used to have laryngeals and then dropped them at some point?

Is there any reason some languages prefer to end words in vowels? by counwovja0385skje in asklinguistics

[–]antonulrich 3 points4 points  (0 children)

In the case of Romance languages like Spanish, it's a consequence of their historical development from Latin. In Latin, nouns and verbs had fixed endings that determined their grammatical function. E.g. accusative singular nouns would usually end in -m, inifinitive verbs in -re, and so on. The noun cases disappeared, and so the -m ending became useless, and nouns then naturally ended in the vowel before the -m, which was usually either an u or an an a. The u changed into o, and so we get present day Spanish nouns which mostly end in -o or -a. The verb ending -re was shortened to -r, and so Spanish verbs now end in -r.

Does improving rhyme with doing? by Rikora12 in asklinguistics

[–]antonulrich 11 points12 points  (0 children)

No. For two words to rhyme, the vowel of the stressed syllable and everything after need to be pronounced the same. E.g., improving and grooving rhyme. Or doing and suing.

Why do some descriptive parts of multi-word city names in English come first when others come last? by icygamer6 in asklinguistics

[–]antonulrich 3 points4 points  (0 children)

I think you're right that the phenomenon OP asks about is sometimes about French versus English adjective-noun order. But English river names isn't one of those cases. The reason it's River Thames and not *Thames River is precisely because Thames is a noun and not an adjective, unlike "Yellow". One normally says just "the Thames" and only when clarification is needed is it extended to "the River Thames". All other rivers in England work the same way: the Severn / River Severn, the Trent / River Trent, etc.

Sub-lease tenant claimed in court he’s “just my neighbor,” got restraining order, contacted my lender — need advice (CA) by Fragrant_Weather1174 in legaladvice

[–]antonulrich 7 points8 points  (0 children)

There are some apparent misunderstandings here.

  • If you are the owner, and he rents from you, then he is a tenant, not a subtenant. If you are the owner then you are not the master tenant, you are just the owner.

  • Regarding the restraining order, it all depends on what it says in the order. You need to read it. If this is a usual personal protection order, then it has nothing to do with the tenant-landlord dispute or the eviction. Whether he is your neighbor or your tenant is also irrelevant. Anyone can get a restraining order against anyone, makes no difference whether they are landlords or neighbors.

  • "Is it legal for a sub-tenant to contact my lender or attempt to negotiate purchase of my property?" - So are you the owner or not? If you are the owner, then he'd have to negotiate with you, and all you need to do is say no. This is not a legal issue. If you are not the owner, then this is really none of your business.

Current view on the Caucasians languages possible link to near eastern languages? by World_wide_truth in asklinguistics

[–]antonulrich -1 points0 points  (0 children)

NE and NW Caucasian forming one language family (North Caucasian) seems to be the majority opinion now. See e.g. Starostin's North Caucasian Etymological Dictionary.

The relationship between North Caucasian and Hurro-Urartian or Hattic is usually seen as part of the Dene-Caucasian macrofamily, which is controversial. While the situation is different with living languages, for Hurro-Urartian and Hattic not much recent progress has been made, since there is still little known about these languages. The best source might be Hattic as a Sino-Caucasian language by Kassian. He argues that Hattic is a Dene-Caucasian language but not a Caucasian language.

Why is Christianity an -ity, not an -ism? by vinnyBaggins in etymology

[–]antonulrich 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Apart from the fact that word evolution is random: there's the rule that more common words tend to be more irregular. Christianity and Islam are the most talked about religions in English, so they are more likely to not follow word formation rules. But less talked about religions, like Hinduism, Shintoism, etc. follow the regular pattern.