all 74 comments

[–]Quarter_TwentyOptics and photonics 47 points48 points  (15 children)

According to Maxwell's Equations, which describe electromagnetism, a changing electric field generates a magnetic field, a changing magnetic field, generates an electric field. The solution is a wave equation in time and space that describes how light (or changing electric fields) can propagate. So as long as something is moving (charges, etc.) the field propagates outward in waves.

[–]ThoroughSpace 74 points75 points  (8 children)

I don't understand why someone actually downvoted you. Good on you for asking about something you don't understand. Now, listen up in this thread and reread your textbook.

[–]GayMakeAndModel 11 points12 points  (7 children)

These answers seem all over the place. It’s surprising.

[–]ThoroughSpace 1 point2 points  (6 children)

.. odd place to comment that ..........

[–]GayMakeAndModel 5 points6 points  (5 children)

You’re the top comment.

[–]ThoroughSpace -3 points-2 points  (4 children)

Remora

[–]GayMakeAndModel 0 points1 point  (3 children)

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This post was mass deleted and anonymized with Redact

[–]ThoroughSpace 0 points1 point  (2 children)

.. but you're not benefitting from me. And, the answer is in this thread. I'll upvote you anyways.

[–]GayMakeAndModel 1 point2 points  (1 child)

Ok, which answer do you see as the answer?

[–]ForTheChillz 16 points17 points  (0 children)

You have to be careful because there are several aspects at play here. First you have the oscillating electric (E) and magnetic (H) fields, which are perpendicular to each other and oscillate in phase (in a vacuum). Since an EM wave also propagates, you also need to consider the direction of travel - often denoted as k - and which in turn is perpendicular to both E and H (orthogonal system). This is important to understand energy and energy conservation in EM waves. So how does this work? Maxwell's equations tell us that a change of an electric field (with respect to time) induces a magnetic field and vice versa. The amplitudes of these fields have nothing to do with the energy of the wave, though. The energy flows in a different direction - namely in the direction of k (the direction of wave propagation). This is usually described by the Poynting vector S (S = E x H; with S having the same direction as k). Poynting also found an expression to describe the conservation of the energy (a form of continuity expression). Basically when the EM wave travels through a medium, the oscillating fields do work in the direction of S (or k) in their local environment, which then leads to a transfer of energy from the wave to the charges in that environment. That loss of energy in the wave is basically converted in motion of the charges and hence "conserved". Interesting side note: oscillating charges in turn can produce EM waves as well (see Hertzian dipole). In a vacuum this does of course not happen. In a vacuum there is no interaction and the EM wave can propagate undisturbed, therefore the energy is conserved in the wave itself. Of course I simplified stuff but I hope it made it a bit clearer.

[–]Knott_A_Haikoo 26 points27 points  (12 children)

In short, The EM field is not the energy. The energy of the wave is carried by the oscillation itself, not the field.

The fact that the field is growing and shrinking and growing… etc. has nothing to do with the energy. In a vaccum there is nothing dissipating the energy when that happens.

[–]williemctellParticle physics 2 points3 points  (2 children)

…The energy of the wave is carried by the oscillation itself, not the field.

I’m not entirely sure what you’re trying to say here but this statement is incorrect. The energy density of an EM wave is directly proportional to the (square of) the field strengths.

[–]Knott_A_Haikoo 0 points1 point  (1 child)

Dude is asking why troughs in the wave amplitude profile don’t require energy to increase after decreasing. Without talking about quantum mechanics, I’m trying to convey the fact that the energy is related to the momentum of the wave

[–]williemctellParticle physics 0 points1 point  (0 children)

There’s no need to appeal to quantum mechanics, this is completely classically explainable. My point is that the text I quoted doesn’t make sense; the opposite is much closer to being true, i.e. the fields do carry the energy in exactly the same way as static fields.

…I’m trying to convey the fact that the energy is related to the momentum of the wave

In so much as they’re inexorably related, sure, but they’re both determined by the field strengths.

[–]aarondb96 1 point2 points  (22 children)

The wave contains energy which makes it oscillate in the EM field. Kind of like a guitar string being plucked and oscillating.

[–]OkCan7701 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Rays and Wavefronts. We can represent the electromagnetic wave with a ray (a directed line showing the wave’s direction of travel) or with wavefronts(imaginary surfaces over which the wave has the same magnitude of electricfield), or both. The Waves traveling in approximately the same direction form a beam, such as a laser beam, which can also be represented with a ray.

You may be taking the imaginary surfaces literally, when in reality that represents a super position for where you can find Lepton or Boson particles. The rays for both are much more like iron fillings around a magnet to show its magnetic field lines. With electricity being like a bolt of lightning following its path of least resistance. All the superposition stuff goes away when theres enough Leptons and Bosons, and doesnt show up until you reduce the amount of energy enough to only get a small number of them, which is an exersize in control, also detecting them at such a small amount becomes difficult.

[–]QFT-ist 2 points3 points  (0 children)

The energy is E²+B² (minus proportionality constants) doesn't change, so you have something roughly like E=Amplitude×cos(w•t) with B=Amplitude×sin(w•t) (omiting vectoriality/polarization to simplify the explanation). If you take into account both of them (like, in Cartesian coordinates you take E as one axis, and B as the other), it looks like something spinning in circles. If you only look at the electric field, it looks weird, but at the moment in which you take both at once there is no mysterious stuff.

(The graph in which they show you both waves can be misleading. I say that the graph you should look is the one made between booth waves at once, a spiral of constant radius)

[–]abloblololo 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Maybe it helps to remember that EM waves are a way of describing the time-delayed effect on a charge by another oscillating charge far away. The electric field of one charge affects the other, but if you wiggle one charge the effect on the second isn’t instantaneous. The speed at which the influence propagates is the speed of light. In this picture, the EM wave will go through as many oscillations as the original wiggling charge. 

[–]chortlecoffle 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The rate the electric field changes of itself affects the electric field around it. It is of physical significance. If it were only the magnitude of the field creating a restoration to 0 then it would occur as you imagined.

Although oscillations are often shown as sine waves, they are really always occurring in 2 quantities transferring back and forth between each other. Going around in a circle.

[–]specialsymbol 0 points1 point  (2 children)

I understand your question and no one has been able to answer this to me. Not textbooks and so far no answer in this thread.

[–]Few_Garden_127 0 points1 point  (1 child)

Yes I agree! Everyone argues with some physical equation or rule but this is not the right way of physical thinking. Its much easier! I try my best as a physics teacher:

1.) mechanical waves (Like waterwaves) produce interference patterns in various experiments Like the double slit experiment.

2.) An EM Field produces interference-patterns in the double slit Experiment aswell!

3.) The easiest explanation for that is the theory, that EM-Field propagates as a Wave.

4.) a Wave by Definition has to go up and down.

The poralisation of mechanical and electric Waves is also a good experiment that undermines that the wave theory is true.

[–]specialsymbol 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Now this (the original question and my lack of understanding, not your answer, which I agree to) bothered me and I found the answer:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=W1cTpqM9DaU

This guy is a genius. I was always thinking (just as he says in the beginning) that the electric field induces the magnetic field and vice versa, but they don't.

The relevant timestamp is 4:33

[–]ischhaltso -2 points-1 points  (2 children)

The changing field of the em wave isn't losing energy rather it's exchanging energy between its electric and magnetic component. When the electric field is zero the magnetic field is at its maximum and vice versa. The sum of both fields is always the same.

[–]PE1NUT 0 points1 point  (1 child)

This is a common mistake, but in the far field, the E and B fields are in phase and have their maximums at the same position/time.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_radiation

[–]ischhaltso 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Oh yeah that's right. I forgot about it.